ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: To interpret the given ABG results: 1. pH <7.35 indicates acidosis. 2. PaCO2 <35 indicates respiratory alkalosis. 3. HCO3 <22 indicates metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the ABG results show metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3) with compensatory respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2). This means the body is trying to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by decreasing PaCO2 through hyperventilation. Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the ABG results and the principles of acid-base balance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why option A is correct: 1. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion leads to decreased sodium reabsorption and increased water excretion. 2. Decreased aldosterone can result in decreased blood volume and BP, leading to decreased urine output. 3. Monitoring urine output is crucial to assess renal function and fluid balance. 4. A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered inadequate and can indicate renal impairment or dehydration. Summary: Option A is correct as it directly relates to the mechanism of action of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the expected complications of aldosterone inhibition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage oral fluid intake. When a client has hypercalcemia (serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL), the priority is to increase fluid intake to promote renal calcium excretion. This helps prevent complications such as renal calculi. The first step is to dilute the serum calcium by increasing fluid intake, which can help lower the serum calcium level. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor (B) is not the priority as hypercalcemia affects the kidneys more than the heart. Assessing urinary output (C) is important but encouraging fluid intake is more immediate. Administering oral calcitonin (Calcimar) (D) is not the first action as it is a medication used for long-term management of hypercalcemia, not the immediate priority.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperchloremia. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms point towards fluid overload, which can lead to hyperchloremia due to excessive chloride intake. 3+ pitting edema suggests fluid retention, a common symptom of hyperchloremia. Additionally, tachypnea can occur as a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis seen in hyperchloremia. Lethargy, weakness, and diminished cognitive ability can be attributed to electrolyte imbalances impacting nerve and muscle function. Choice A: Hypocalcemia is less likely as it typically presents with neuromuscular irritability, not lethargy. Choice B: Hyponatremia usually presents with neurological symptoms like confusion and seizures, not the symptoms described. Choice D: Hypophosphatemia typically presents with muscle weakness, not the full constellation of symptoms described.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Choice C is correct because it emphasizes the importance of cleaning connections before accessing the device to prevent infection. 2. Sterile technique during insertion cannot guarantee no risk of infection (Choice B). 3. Wearing a sling is unnecessary for a central vascular access device (Choice A). 4. The statement about not being able to take a bath is not accurate and is not a common restriction (Choice D).