Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers work by relaxing the blood vessels, making it easier for the heart to pump blood and reducing blood pressure. Choice B, ACE inhibitor, reduces blood pressure by blocking the production of angiotensin II, a substance that narrows blood vessels. Choice C, Beta-blocker, reduces heart rate and the heart's workload, not directly relaxing blood vessels. Choice D, Diuretic, reduces blood pressure by increasing urine output, reducing the volume of fluid in the blood vessels, rather than directly relaxing them.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. Heart failure is a chronic condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs, resulting in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Choice B, Cardiomyopathy, refers to diseases of the heart muscle that can lead to heart failure but is not the specific term for the condition described. Choices C and D, Myocarditis and Pericarditis, respectively, are conditions involving inflammation of the heart muscle or the lining around the heart, which can cause heart failure as a complication but are not the primary condition described in the question.