Midwifery Test Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which one of the following statements is correct about secondary post-partum haemorrhage?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because secondary post-partum hemorrhage can occur up to 6 weeks (46 days) after delivery, typically due to delayed complications like retained placental fragments or infection. Choice A is incorrect because most secondary post-partum hemorrhage occurs after the first week. Choice B is incorrect as it describes primary post-partum hemorrhage, which occurs within 24 hours of delivery. Choice D is incorrect since lochia serosa is a normal discharge present in the early post-partum period and is not specific to diagnosing secondary post-partum hemorrhage.

Question 2 of 5

A student AGACNP just beginning his clinical rotation is observing his preceptor perform a physical survey on a patient who is brought in following a serious motor vehicle accident. The student observes that the physical examination includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of the pelvic landmarks. The student knows the patient is being assessed for

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retroperitoneal bleeding. The physical survey described focuses on assessing for internal bleeding within the retroperitoneal space following a serious motor vehicle accident. The rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of pelvic landmarks help evaluate for signs of pelvic fracture and internal bleeding. These assessments help identify potential sources of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can be a life-threatening complication of trauma. Peritoneal bleeding (choice A) involves bleeding within the abdominal cavity, which is less likely in this scenario. Paresthesia (choice C) refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, which are not typically assessed through physical examination in this context. Pelvic fracture (choice D) is a possible outcome of trauma but does not directly assess for retroperitoneal bleeding.

Question 3 of 5

Based upon an understanding of the normal relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion, the AGACNP recognizes that which of the following combinations is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion. Gastrinoma is a tumor that secretes excessive gastrin, leading to elevated gastrin levels. High gastrin levels stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, resulting in acid hypersecretion. Therefore, the combination of hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma. A: Hypogastrinemia and acid hyposecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma leads to increased gastrin levels and subsequent acid hypersecretion. B: Hypergastrinemia and acid hyposecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma is associated with acid hypersecretion, not hyposecretion. C: Hypogastrinemia and acid hypersecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma causes elevated gastrin levels and acid hypersecretion, not hypogastrinemia. In summary, the correct answer D aligns with the pathophysiology of gastrinoma, while the

Question 4 of 5

Breech presentation: a) What is meant by �breech presentation�?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Breech presentation refers to the bottom or feet-first position of the baby in the uterus. This is the correct answer (B) because it accurately defines breech presentation. Choice A (head-first presentation) is incorrect as it describes the typical vertex presentation. Choices C (oblique lie) and D (transverse lie) are also incorrect as they refer to other abnormal fetal positions that are different from breech presentation.

Question 5 of 5

Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions are often mistaken for postpartum eclampsia due to similar symptoms such as seizures and altered mental status. Postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, usually within 48 hours, while antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery. Presence of stroke and pre-existing epilepsy are not directly related to convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism. Thus, D is the correct choice as it closely resembles the presentation of convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism.

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