Midwifery Test Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement about shoulder dystocia is A: It�s an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head. This is accurate as shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior shoulder becomes impacted behind the maternal pubic symphysis. This can lead to difficulty delivering the shoulders after the head is delivered. B is incorrect as shoulder dystocia involves the anterior shoulder, not the posterior. C is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is not related to compound presentation. D is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is an obstetric emergency that requires prompt intervention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (>90%). Mr. Mettenberger had a reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year, indicating a high recurrence risk. Spontaneous pneumothorax recurrence rates are high, especially in young males. Factors such as smoking history, gender, and prior occurrences contribute to increased risk. Mr. Mettenberger's cessation of smoking reduces but does not eliminate the risk. Choices A, B, and C are too low, given his history and current situation. Choice D is the most appropriate due to the high likelihood of recurrence based on his medical history and risk factors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: His symptoms occur in 5 to 10% of people after ulcer surgery. This is the correct answer because the patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating are common post-operative complications following ulcer surgery. By stating this fact to the patient, the AGACNP is providing reassurance that these symptoms are not unusual. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point since the symptoms described by the patient are known post-operative complications and do not indicate an urgent need for endoscopy. B: While gastroparesis can be a complication of ulcer surgery, there is no information in the case to suggest that the patient has chronic gastroparesis. C: Jumping to the conclusion that medication is unlikely to help and another surgery may be needed is premature and not supported by the information provided in the case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Mallory-Weiss syndrome is caused by severe vomiting leading to tears in the esophagus. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, which can result in Mallory-Weiss syndrome. Placenta praevia, cardiac disease, and postpartum hemorrhage are not directly associated with Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound. In compound presentation, a hand or foot is alongside the presenting part, usually the head. This can complicate the delivery process. A: Footling presentation means the foot presents first. B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways. C: Cephalic presentation is normal, with the head presenting first. In this scenario, D is the correct answer as it specifically describes the situation where a hand or foot is alongside the presenting part.