Midwifery Test Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement about shoulder dystocia is A: It�s an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head. This is accurate as shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior shoulder becomes impacted behind the maternal pubic symphysis. This can lead to difficulty delivering the shoulders after the head is delivered. B is incorrect as shoulder dystocia involves the anterior shoulder, not the posterior. C is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is not related to compound presentation. D is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is an obstetric emergency that requires prompt intervention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pancreatitis. The patient's sudden, severe upper abdominal pain, unaffected by food intake, along with guarding and elevated white blood cell count, are indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient's positioning (knees to chest) suggests relief from pain, which is characteristic of pancreatitis. A dissecting aortic aneurysm (choice A) typically presents with tearing chest or back pain. Perforated peptic ulcer (choice C) would present with a history of chronic ulcer symptoms. Mallory-Weiss tear (choice D) presents with a history of recent vomiting. Therefore, based on the patient's presentation and findings, acute pancreatitis is the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this condition, there is a single large vessel arising from the heart that gives rise to the systemic, pulmonary, and coronary arteries. This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygenation of the body, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation typically do not cause immediate death after birth. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal structure that closes shortly after birth and its presence would not directly cause immediate death.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because partial response in cancer therapy typically refers to a reduction in tumor size by more than 50%. This reduction indicates some positive effect of the treatment on the tumor. Choice A is incorrect because partial response is not solely based on the percentage of patients demonstrating remission, it is about the tumor response. Choice B is incorrect because survival at 5 years is related to overall survival rate, not specifically to the tumor response. Choice D is incorrect because the conversion from unresectable to resectable is more related to the operability of the tumor, rather than the response to chemotherapy.