Midwifery Test Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preservation of sensorineural hearing. In cholesteatoma, surgery aims to remove the lesion and prevent further damage to the ossicles and inner ear structures. Preserving sensorineural hearing is crucial to maintain auditory function post-surgery. A: Production of a dry ear is important to prevent recurrence, but not the primary goal. C: Debridement of infection is necessary, but the main aim is to address the cholesteatoma itself. D: Restoration of the tympanic membrane may be needed but is not the primary objective in cholesteatoma surgery.

Question 2 of 5

A clinical feature that is indicative of transient tachypnea of the newborn is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Transient tachypnea of the newborn is characterized by rapid respirations due to delayed reabsorption of fetal lung fluid. Step 2: Rapid respirations of up to 120/minute is a common clinical feature seen in newborns with transient tachypnea. Step 3: This rapid breathing pattern distinguishes it from other conditions. Step 4: Marked recession of the rib cage is more indicative of respiratory distress syndrome. Step 5: Transient tachypnea can occur in both normal and cesarean deliveries, so choice C is incorrect. Step 6: Diminished respirations of less than 40/minute would not be expected in transient tachypnea. Summary: Choice A is correct because rapid respirations are a key clinical feature of transient tachypnea, while the other choices do not align with its characteristic presentation.

Question 3 of 5

In the majority of cases, the first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Physiologic stress ulcers are often associated with systemic stress response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Fever is an early sign of stress-related ulcers before other symptoms like epigastric pain or hemorrhage manifest. Change in mental status is more indicative of neurological issues rather than stress ulcers. Epigastric pain typically occurs after the ulcer has progressed, and hemorrhage is a severe complication of untreated stress ulcers.

Question 4 of 5

An indication for forceps delivery is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.

Question 5 of 5

How can maternal obesity be managed during pregnancy to improve outcomes?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the above. Regular exercise helps control weight gain and improves maternal health. A balanced diet provides essential nutrients for both mother and baby. Monitoring weight gain ensures healthy weight management. Combining all three strategies optimizes outcomes by reducing risks associated with maternal obesity, such as gestational diabetes and hypertension. Each option plays a crucial role in managing maternal obesity during pregnancy for better overall health and well-being.

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