ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statements is accurate in explaining why gram-negative bacteria are generally more resistant to penicillin than gram-positive bacteria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as an extra barrier. This outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides and porins, which restrict the entry of antibiotics like penicillin. The outer membrane acts as an additional layer of protection, making it harder for penicillin to penetrate and reach its target, the peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the specific mechanism of resistance seen in gram-negative bacteria. Choice A focuses on transpeptidase enzyme quantity, which is not the primary reason for penicillin resistance. Choice B refers to β-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space, which are actually enzymes that degrade penicillin and contribute to resistance, but this is not unique to gram-negative bacteria. Choice D mentions a thicker cell wall, which is a characteristic of gram-positive bacteria, not gram-negative bacteria.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who has recently come from an endemic area presents with elevated body temperature, headache, chills, malaise, that is with the symptoms which are typical for a common cold. What laboratory tests are necessary to confirm or to refute the diagnosis of malaria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Microscopy of blood smears. Malaria diagnosis is confirmed by identifying the Plasmodium parasite in a blood smear. This step is crucial as it directly visualizes the causative agent. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly detect malaria parasites. B: Studying lymph node punctate is not specific for malaria. C: Urinalysis does not show malaria parasites. D: Studying cerebrospinal fluid is used to diagnose conditions affecting the brain and spinal cord, not malaria.
Question 3 of 5
Production of RNA and DNA is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transcription. This is the process where the DNA sequence is copied into an RNA molecule. It is the initial step in gene expression. A: RNA splicing is the process of removing introns from pre-mRNA to create a mature mRNA molecule. B: Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins using the information from mRNA. C: Transposition is the movement of genetic elements within a genome. In summary, transcription specifically refers to the synthesis of RNA from DNA, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.
Question 4 of 5
Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Louis Pasteur. He conducted experiments that definitively disproved the theory of spontaneous generation through his famous swan-neck flask experiment. By showing that microorganisms only appeared in the broth when exposed to air, Pasteur demonstrated that they did not arise spontaneously. John Needham's experiments were inconclusive, Joseph Lister is known for his contributions to antiseptic surgery, and Robert Koch is credited with developing Koch's postulates for identifying the causative agents of diseases, but neither of them directly contributed to ending the controversy about spontaneous generation.
Question 5 of 5
The symmetry of nucleocapsid of poxviruses is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complex. Poxviruses have a complex nucleocapsid symmetry due to their unique structure with multiple layers of proteins and genetic material. Isohedral symmetry (B) refers to a regular polyhedron shape, which is not characteristic of poxviruses. Helical symmetry (C) is found in viruses like tobacco mosaic virus, not poxviruses. "All of the above" (D) is incorrect because poxviruses do not exhibit isohedral or helical symmetry.
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