Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank

Questions 79

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protozoa 10-18 mcm large. They have piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of body. What kind of the lowest organisms is it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamblia. The description matches the characteristics of Giardia lamblia - a protozoan parasite that causes giardiasis. The piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, and two symmetrically located nuclei are specific to Giardia lamblia. It is important to differentiate it from the other choices. Dysentery ameba (choice B) typically has a single nucleus and lacks the specific characteristics described. Trichomonas (choice C) is a flagellated protozoan with different morphology and does not match the given description. Intestinal ameba (choice D) such as Entamoeba histolytica usually has a single nucleus and different body shape compared to the described organism.

Question 2 of 5

Which ones of the following symptoms are NOT typical for botulism

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are not typical symptoms of botulism. Botulism is characterized by descending, flaccid paralysis (choice A), dry mouth, difficulty swallowing, and speaking (choice B), and blurred vision, diplopia (choice D). These symptoms result from the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are more commonly associated with infections or other conditions, not botulism.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following statements for S. Aureus is FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Staphylococcus aureus can develop resistance to penicillin over time due to the production of beta-lactamase enzymes. This resistance mechanism makes it no longer susceptible to penicillin. The other choices are correct: B) S. aureus can produce beta hemolysis, C) it produces various toxins like hemolysins, leucocidins, and enterotoxins, and D) it shows a positive catalase reaction due to the presence of catalase enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with fever and diarrhea had a stool sample that revealed Gram-negative rods that fermented lactose. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis presenting with fever and diarrhea. Salmonella typhi does not ferment lactose and causes typhoid fever. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery and does not ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris does not typically cause gastroenteritis and is not known for lactose fermentation.

Question 5 of 5

A child suspected for tuberculosis underwent Mantoux test. 24 hours after allergen injection there appeared a swelling, hyperaemia and tenderness. What are the main components in the development of this reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mononuclears, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines. In a Mantoux test reaction, mononuclear cells, mainly T-lymphocytes, are activated by the injected allergen. These T-lymphocytes release lymphokines, leading to the observed swelling, hyperaemia, and tenderness. Granulocytes and IgG (choice B) are not the primary players in this type of delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Plasmatic cells (choice C) are not involved in the initial stages of this reaction. B-lymphocytes and IgM (choice D) are not the key components in the Mantoux test reaction.

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