Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following patients should the nurse monitors because of increased risk for surgical complications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's Body Mass Index (BMI) indicates obesity, putting them at higher risk for surgical complications. Obesity is associated with increased risks of infections, delayed wound healing, respiratory issues, and cardiovascular problems post-surgery. Monitoring this patient closely is crucial. Choice A is less likely to have increased surgical complications due to age and condition. Choice C, a 12-year-old, is less likely to have significant surgical complications compared to adults. Choice D, a 17-year-old with gallstones, may have risks but the BMI of the patient in choice B indicates a higher risk.

Question 2 of 5

To reduce symptoms of early morning stiffness in a ptient who has rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse can encourage the patient to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: take a hot tub bath or shower in the morning. This is effective as the warm water helps to relax muscles and joints, reducing stiffness. It also improves circulation, which can alleviate morning stiffness in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Incorrect choices: B: Putting joints through passive ROM before active movement may exacerbate stiffness if not done properly. C: Sleeping with a hot pad may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of morning stiffness. D: Taking aspirin can help with pain but does not directly address stiffness. Waiting 15 minutes before moving may not be as effective as soaking in warm water.

Question 3 of 5

A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.

Question 4 of 5

The following data collection findings could indicate to the nurse that the patient has a hearing loss, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A relaxed face during conversation typically does not indicate a hearing loss, as the patient is likely able to hear and understand. B, speaking loudly, is a common sign of hearing loss. C, turning towards the speaker, suggests an effort to hear better. D, being withdrawn, could indicate difficulty in communication due to hearing loss. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it does not align with typical signs of hearing loss.

Question 5 of 5

A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.

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