hesi health assessment test bank 2023

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not use underarm deodorant. This instruction is important because deodorant can interfere with the imaging results by causing artifacts on the mammogram images. Using deodorant can lead to false positives or false negatives, affecting the accuracy of the test results. Choice A is incorrect because using underarm deodorant can negatively impact the mammogram results. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before a mammogram. Choice D is also incorrect as having a friend drive you home is not a necessary instruction for a mammography appointment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A trained interpreter. Choosing a trained interpreter ensures accurate communication and confidentiality. Professional interpreters have the necessary language skills and cultural competence to facilitate effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient. Using a family member (choices B and C) may compromise confidentiality and accuracy due to potential bias or lack of professional training. Similarly, selecting a volunteer university student (choice D) may result in misinterpretation or breach of privacy as they may not have the same level of expertise as a trained interpreter. Ultimately, the most appropriate choice is a trained interpreter to ensure clear and accurate communication while respecting the patient's privacy and dignity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer glucose. In hypoglycemia, the priority is to raise the low blood sugar levels quickly. Administering glucose is the most direct and effective way to do so. Glucose will rapidly increase the blood sugar levels and help the client recover from hypoglycemia. Administering insulin (B) would further lower blood sugar levels. Administering glucagon (C) is used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious. Encouraging deep breathing (D) is not effective in treating hypoglycemia and does not address the immediate need to raise blood sugar levels.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.