ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following communication methods is not an option for a patient following laryngectomy surgery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because learning esophageal speech involves creating sound by pushing air from the mouth into the esophagus and then releasing it. Following laryngectomy surgery, the patient's larynx is removed, making it impossible to produce sound in this manner. Placing a finger over the stoma (A) allows the patient to redirect air through the mouth for speech, using a picture board (B) enables communication through written or visual cues, and using a special valve that diverts air into the trachea (C) allows for voice rehabilitation. In summary, options A, B, and C are valid communication methods post-laryngectomy surgery, while option D is not feasible due to the absence of the larynx.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the ff. statements does the nurse understand is true concerning air conduction of sound in the ear?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because air conduction is less efficient than bone conduction due to the sound waves traveling through the air in the ear canal, which can be hindered by factors like blockages or obstructions. This results in a weaker and less clear sound transmission compared to bone conduction, where sound waves are transmitted directly through the bones of the skull, bypassing any potential obstructions in the ear canal. Incorrect choices: A: This statement is incorrect as air conduction of sound in the ear is not caused by the vibration of bones in the skull. C: This statement is incorrect as air conduction is typically heard for a shorter duration than bone conduction. D: This statement is incorrect as air conduction of sound in the ear is not caused by the transmission of heat through the air, but rather by sound waves traveling through the ear canal.
Question 3 of 5
The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication of hypophysectomy, the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating water balance in the body, and its removal can lead to excessive urine production. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in stress does not typically cause polyuria, diabetes mellitus is not an immediate complication of surgery, and polyuria is not an expected result of pituitary gland removal.
Question 4 of 5
Which common side effect of metolazone (Zaroxolyn) should the nurse instruct a patient to report to the health- care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Metolazone is a diuretic that can lead to low potassium levels, causing muscle weakness. Instructing the patient to report muscle weakness is crucial to prevent any potential serious complications. Numb hands, gastrointestinal distress, and nightmares are not commonly associated with metolazone and do not pose as immediate risks as muscle weakness does. It is essential to prioritize the most critical side effect to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is being taught the action of digoxin, which is an inotropic agent. The nurse defines an inotropic agent as a medication that has which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Strengthens heart contraction. Digoxin is an inotropic agent that works by increasing the force of the heart's contractions. This leads to improved cardiac output and helps manage conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because digoxin does not decrease heart rate, increase conduction time, or increase heart rate. It specifically targets the strength of the heart's contractions, making option D the most appropriate choice. This action of digoxin is crucial in improving the efficiency of the heart's pumping function.
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