Nursing Process Test Questions

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following best defines the process of evaluating a nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because evaluating a nursing intervention involves collecting data to determine if the goals set for the intervention were achieved. This process helps in assessing the effectiveness of the intervention in meeting the desired outcomes. Option B is incorrect as it refers to the identification of nursing diagnoses for new problems, which is part of the nursing assessment phase, not evaluation. Option C is incorrect as adjusting the care plan to include collaborative interventions is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation. Option D is incorrect as performing client care tasks as per protocol is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation.

Question 2 of 5

During the physical examination of a client for a possible neurologic disorder, how can the nurse examine the client for stiffness and rigidity of the neck?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. To examine stiffness and rigidity of the neck, the nurse should move the client's head and chin toward the chest. This maneuver assesses for resistance and limitation in neck flexion, which can indicate stiffness and rigidity commonly seen in neurologic disorders like meningitis or cervical dystonia. A: Positioning the client flat on the bed for hours does not specifically target neck stiffness and rigidity. C: Asking the client to bend and pick up objects assesses motor function, not neck stiffness. D: Introducing a painful stimulus is not a standard or appropriate method for examining neck stiffness and rigidity.

Question 3 of 5

Early this morning a client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, the nurse assesses the client, who has now nausea, a temperature of 105F (40.5C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid crisis. These signs suggest thyroid storm, a life-threatening complication of thyroid surgery. The high fever, tachycardia, and restlessness are classic symptoms. Thyroid crisis can lead to severe complications if not managed promptly. A: Diabetic ketoacidosis typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fruity breath odor. B: Hypoglycemia would present with symptoms like diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion. D: Tetany is associated with hypocalcemia and presents with muscle cramps, spasms, and numbness.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to a patient is the main purpose of a hearing aid?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improve ability to hear. A hearing aid is designed to improve a person's ability to hear by amplifying sound. This helps individuals with hearing loss to better understand speech and sounds in their environment. A: Amplifying background noise is not the main purpose of a hearing aid. It may actually hinder the user's ability to focus on important sounds. B: Amplifying musical sounds is not the primary function of a hearing aid. The main focus is on improving speech understanding. C: Occluding the ear is not the purpose of a hearing aid. It is meant to enhance hearing, not block sound.

Question 5 of 5

The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication of hypophysectomy, the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating water balance in the body, and its removal can lead to excessive urine production. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in stress does not typically cause polyuria, diabetes mellitus is not an immediate complication of surgery, and polyuria is not an expected result of pituitary gland removal.

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