microbiology chapter 13 test bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent based on the description of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. S. pneumoniae is known for its characteristic morphology and the presence of a capsule, which helps in evading the immune system. It commonly causes pneumonia, especially in patients with a productive cough and fever. Incorrect choices: B: Klebsiella pneumoniae typically presents with a mucoid capsule and is associated with pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is more commonly associated with meningitis and septicemia. D: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present in pairs with a capsule and is more commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Method of Moller. This method uses malachite green to stain bacterial spores due to their resistance to decolorization. The other choices, A, B, and D, are incorrect because Romanovski-Gymsa is used for staining blood smears, Ziehl-Nielsen is used for acid-fast bacteria, and Neisser is used for staining Neisseria species, not bacterial spores.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct answer because it is the specific bacterium responsible for causing gonorrhea. It is a sexually transmitted infection that primarily affects the genital tract. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is transmitted through sexual contact and can lead to symptoms such as painful urination, discharge, and pelvic pain. Chlamydia trachomatis (Choice B) is another sexually transmitted bacterium, but it causes chlamydia, not gonorrhea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Choice C) is responsible for tuberculosis, a different infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs. Treponema pallidum (Choice D) causes syphilis, another sexually transmitted infection that presents with distinct symptoms from gonorrhea. Therefore, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct choice for causing gonorrhea due to its specific association with this particular infection.