Microbiology Chapter 13 Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus. These microorganisms are commonly found in high concentrations during sanitary and bacteriological examination of air in a drugstore due to their prevalence in the environment. Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus are known to be significant pathogens that can cause various infections in humans. Rationale: 1. Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus are common pathogens found in the environment and can easily contaminate air in enclosed spaces like a drugstore. 2. Both microorganisms are considered to be of sanitary significance as they can cause infections and are indicators of poor hygiene and sanitation. 3. Diphtheritic and tuberculous bacilli (Choice B) are not typically associated with air contamination in a drugstore setting. 4. Colibacilli and blue pus bacilli (Choice C) are more commonly found in fecal

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) virus. 2. The prefix "parvo-" indicates small size, characteristic of ssDNA viruses. 3. ssDNA viruses replicate in the host cell by converting their ssDNA genome into double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Its genome consists of dsDNA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Parvovirus B19 is a non-enveloped virus, making choice B incorrect. C: Parvovirus B19 has a linear ssDNA genome, not segmented, making choice C incorrect. D: Parvovirus B19 has two structural proteins - VP1 and VP2, making choice D incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Adenoviruses are DNA viruses, so choices B and C (ssRNA and DNA) are incorrect. 2. Adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid, making choice A the correct description. 3. Choice D is incorrect as adenoviruses do have specific characteristics, making "None of the above" an inaccurate option. In summary, the correct answer A is supported by the fact that adenoviruses have a middle-sized, naked icosahedral capsid and contain double-stranded DNA. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the characteristics of adenoviruses.