microbiology an introduction tortora test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Bordetella pertussis is the causative agent of whooping cough, also known as pertussis. Step 2: This bacterium produces toxins that damage the respiratory tract, leading to severe coughing fits. Step 3: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Haemophilus influenzae causes respiratory infections, and Staphylococcus aureus causes skin infections. Step 4: Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only bacterium directly associated with whooping cough.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because there is no obligatory vaccine for Neisseria meningitidis in Bulgaria. The rationale for this is that while vaccines are available for meningococcal disease, they are not mandatory in Bulgaria. Therefore, this statement is incorrect. A: This statement is correct as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome can occur during meningococcemia due to rapid progression of the infection leading to adrenal gland failure. B: This statement is incorrect as Neisseria meningitidis is most common in infants, children, and adolescents, with a second peak in young adults. D: This statement is correct as Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted through respiratory secretions, such as coughing or kissing, especially in close contacts like household members or roommates.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to cause a wide range of infections and its resistance to multiple antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin infections, pneumonia, bloodstream infections, and surgical site infections, making it a significant threat in healthcare settings. Escherichia coli (choice A) is more commonly associated with foodborne illnesses. Clostridium difficile (choice B) is known for causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Bacillus anthracis (choice D) is primarily associated with anthrax infections, which are not typically acquired in hospital settings.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in vaginal flora. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance, leading to overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. Pregnancy alters hormone levels, making the vagina more susceptible to infection. Menopause decreases estrogen levels, thinning the vaginal walls and reducing beneficial bacteria. A: Urinary blockage does not directly relate to vaginitis. Drug use and stress may weaken the immune system but are not direct causes of vaginitis. C: Puberty, HPV exposure, and smoking/tobacco use do not directly increase the chances of vaginitis. HPV is a viral infection, not a direct cause of vaginitis. D: While menopause can increase the risk of vaginitis due to hormonal changes, stress and steroid use are not primary factors in developing vaginitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods suggest Enterobacteriaceae family. 2. Lactose fermenters narrow down to E. coli. 3. Green colonies on MacConkey agar indicate acid production. 4. E. coli is a common cause of pneumonia. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Escherichia coli. Other choices are incorrect as Klebsiella is non-lactose fermenter, Pseudomonas is oxidase-positive, and Proteus is non-lactose fermenter.