microbiology an introduction tortora test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-negative rods suggest Enterobacteriaceae family. 2. Lactose fermenters narrow down to E. coli. 3. Green colonies on MacConkey agar indicate acid production. 4. E. coli is a common cause of pneumonia. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Escherichia coli. Other choices are incorrect as Klebsiella is non-lactose fermenter, Pseudomonas is oxidase-positive, and Proteus is non-lactose fermenter.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in vaginal flora. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance, leading to overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. Pregnancy alters hormone levels, making the vagina more susceptible to infection. Menopause decreases estrogen levels, thinning the vaginal walls and reducing beneficial bacteria. A: Urinary blockage does not directly relate to vaginitis. Drug use and stress may weaken the immune system but are not direct causes of vaginitis. C: Puberty, HPV exposure, and smoking/tobacco use do not directly increase the chances of vaginitis. HPV is a viral infection, not a direct cause of vaginitis. D: While menopause can increase the risk of vaginitis due to hormonal changes, stress and steroid use are not primary factors in developing vaginitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Adhesins in gram positive bacteria are typically carried out by surface structures such as lipoteichoic acids. These molecules help the bacteria adhere to host cells or tissues. Lipoteichoic acids are specific to gram positive bacteria and play a crucial role in initiating infections. Fimbriae, flagella, and short chain mycolic acids are not primarily responsible for adhesion in gram positive bacteria. Fimbriae are more commonly found in gram negative bacteria, flagella are involved in motility, and short chain mycolic acids are specific to mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A, lipoteichoic acids.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is known to inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism. 2. Inhibition of this enzyme leads to accumulation of acetaldehyde, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 3. This reaction is known as the disulfiram-like reaction. 4. Reserpine, Clonidine, and Diazepam do not have this specific mechanism of action. Summary: - Option A (Metronidazole) is correct due to its inhibition of alcohol metabolism. - Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not exhibit this interaction with alcohol metabolism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. The symptoms described, such as ptosis, mydriasis, anisocoria, dry mouth, and absent gag reflex, are classic signs of botulism. Botulism is caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum, commonly found in improperly preserved canned foods. The progression from gastrointestinal symptoms to neurological symptoms, like double vision and difficulty swallowing, is characteristic of botulism due to the toxin's effect on neuromuscular transmission. Poliomyelitis primarily affects the motor neurons and presents with different symptoms. Food toxicoinfection typically involves gastrointestinal symptoms and does not manifest with the neurological findings seen in this case. Acute ischemic stroke presents with sudden onset neurological deficits due to impaired blood flow to the brain, which is not consistent with the gradual progression of symptoms in this scenario.