Nursing Process Final Exam Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because emphysema is characterized by the destruction of the alveoli walls, leading to a loss of elasticity in the lungs. This results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it difficult to exhale properly. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Inflamed bronchioles causing secretions describe bronchitis, not emphysema. C: Damage to the blood supply isn't a primary feature of emphysema; it's more about lung tissue destruction. D: Large dilated sacs of sputum in the lungs is not an accurate description of emphysema; it's more related to bronchiectasis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will have my potassium level checked." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. A: Monitoring urine sodium is not typically necessary for furosemide therapy. B: Prothrombin time monitoring is unrelated to furosemide therapy. C: Monitoring calcium levels is not directly affected by furosemide use. In summary, monitoring potassium levels is essential due to the potential for hypokalemia with furosemide, while the other options are not directly relevant to this medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically between 12-20 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 18 falls within this range, indicating adequate respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because an oxygen saturation of 91% is below the normal range of 95-100%, suggesting potential respiratory insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as frank blood suction from the tube indicates a serious issue such as bleeding, not adequate respiratory condition. Choice D is also incorrect as the presence of a moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions may indicate a respiratory infection or other respiratory issue, not necessarily adequate respiratory condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid. This instruction helps to reduce GI irritation by providing a protective barrier for the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effect on prostaglandin synthesis. Taking it with food or an antacid can help minimize this side effect. Choice A (Space the administration every 4 hours) does not address the issue of GI irritation and is not a recommended strategy for preventing this side effect. Choice B (Use the drug for a short time only) is not a direct intervention to prevent GI upset and does not provide guidance on how to manage the side effect when taking the medication. Choice D (Decrease the piroxicam dosage) may not be necessary if the client can manage the side effects with the simple intervention of taking it with food or an antacid.