ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the ff. is the best explanation of emphysema for a newly diagnosed patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because emphysema is characterized by the destruction of the alveoli walls, leading to a loss of elasticity in the lungs. This results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it difficult to exhale properly. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Inflamed bronchioles causing secretions describe bronchitis, not emphysema. C: Damage to the blood supply isn't a primary feature of emphysema; it's more about lung tissue destruction. D: Large dilated sacs of sputum in the lungs is not an accurate description of emphysema; it's more related to bronchiectasis.
Question 2 of 5
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid. This instruction helps to reduce GI irritation by providing a protective barrier for the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effect on prostaglandin synthesis. Taking it with food or an antacid can help minimize this side effect. Choice A (Space the administration every 4 hours) does not address the issue of GI irritation and is not a recommended strategy for preventing this side effect. Choice B (Use the drug for a short time only) is not a direct intervention to prevent GI upset and does not provide guidance on how to manage the side effect when taking the medication. Choice D (Decrease the piroxicam dosage) may not be necessary if the client can manage the side effects with the simple intervention of taking it with food or an antacid.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis related to enhancing the patient's urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, which focuses on promoting the patient's health and well-being. The Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination diagnosis indicates the patient's motivation and readiness to improve their urinary elimination abilities, aligning with the concept of health promotion. This type of diagnosis acknowledges the patient's potential for growth and improvement in their health status. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This choice would be more appropriate if the diagnosis focused on potential complications or adverse events related to the patient's urinary elimination abilities. B: Problem focused - This choice would be suitable if the diagnosis identified an existing issue or problem with the patient's urinary elimination abilities that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This choice would be relevant if the diagnosis required collaboration between healthcare providers to manage the patient's urinary elimination abilities effectively.
Question 4 of 5
The patient is being discharged on furosemide (Lasix). The nurse evaluates the patient as understanding her medication teaching if she states that she will have which of the ff. laboratory tests monitored as ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will have my potassium level checked." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. A: Monitoring urine sodium is not typically necessary for furosemide therapy. B: Prothrombin time monitoring is unrelated to furosemide therapy. C: Monitoring calcium levels is not directly affected by furosemide use. In summary, monitoring potassium levels is essential due to the potential for hypokalemia with furosemide, while the other options are not directly relevant to this medication.
Question 5 of 5
What is the primary purpose of the implementation step in the nursing process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To carry out the plan of care. In the nursing process, implementation is the phase where nurses put the established care plan into action by delivering the interventions outlined to meet the client's needs. This step is crucial as it ensures that the care plan is executed effectively and efficiently. Establishing priorities (A) is done during the planning phase, identifying client outcomes (C) is part of the evaluation phase, and validating nursing diagnoses (D) is typically done during the assessment phase, not implementation.
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