Nursing Process Final Exam Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To carry out the plan of care. In the nursing process, implementation is the phase where nurses put the established care plan into action by delivering the interventions outlined to meet the client's needs. This step is crucial as it ensures that the care plan is executed effectively and efficiently. Establishing priorities (A) is done during the planning phase, identifying client outcomes (C) is part of the evaluation phase, and validating nursing diagnoses (D) is typically done during the assessment phase, not implementation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would identify platelets at 115,000/ul as an abnormal finding because it is below the normal range of 150,000-450,000/ul. Low platelet count can lead to increased bleeding risk. RBC count and hematocrit levels are within normal ranges, making them normal findings. Option D is incorrect as platelets are abnormal.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Creamy white patches. These patches are indicative of oral thrush, a common fungal infection seen in individuals with weakened immune systems like those with AIDS. This infection is caused by Candida albicans. It presents as white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth. Halitosis (A) is bad breath, not specific to AIDS. Carious teeth (C) refers to cavities, not directly related to AIDS. Swollen lips (D) can be a symptom of various oral conditions, but not specific to AIDS. In summary, creamy white patches are a characteristic oral problem associated with AIDS due to opportunistic infections like oral thrush.