ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the ff. does the nurse understand are the reasons a patient with pulmonary edema is given morphine sulphate? i.To reduce anxiety iv.To increase BP ii.To relieve chest pain v.To reduce preload and afterload iii.To strengthen heart contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because morphine sulfate is given to a patient with pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety (i) and to reduce preload and afterload (v). Morphine sulfate does not increase blood pressure (ii), relieve chest pain (iii), or strengthen heart contractions (iv) in the context of pulmonary edema. Choice A is incorrect because it includes increasing BP, which is not a reason for giving morphine sulfate in this case. Choice B is incorrect because it includes strengthening heart contractions, which is not a reason for administering morphine sulfate. Choice D is incorrect because it includes relieving chest pain, which is not a primary purpose of giving morphine sulfate to a patient with pulmonary edema.
Question 2 of 5
Why must clients who will undergo diagnostic skin test avoid taking antihistamine or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hrs before testing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antihistamines can suppress the immune response that the skin test is designed to detect, leading to false negative results. By inhibiting the body's allergic response, antihistamines can mask the presence of an allergy, giving the false impression that the individual is not allergic to a particular substance. This can lead to misdiagnosis and improper treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because antihistamines do not affect bleeding, aggravate allergic reactions, or cause wheezing in the context of a skin test.
Question 3 of 5
The NAP states that was busy and had not had a chance to tell the nurse yet. The patient begins to complain of feeling dizzy and light-headed. The blood pressure is rechecked and it has dropped even lower. In which phase of the nursing process did the nurse first make an error? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. In the scenario, the nurse failed to assess the patient's condition promptly after the patient complained of feeling dizzy and light-headed. Assessment is the first phase of the nursing process and involves collecting data to identify the patient's health status. By not reassessing the patient's vital signs and symptoms, the nurse missed an opportunity to detect the worsening condition. The other choices are incorrect because the error occurred before diagnosis (B), implementation (C), and evaluation (D) phases. In diagnosis, the nurse identifies the patient's problems; in implementation, the nurse carries out the care plan; and in evaluation, the nurse assesses the effectiveness of interventions.
Question 4 of 5
As part of primary cancer prevention program, an oncology nurse answers questions from the public at health fair. When someone asks about the laryngeal cancer, the nurse should explain that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Laryngeal cancer is strongly linked to smoking and alcohol consumption. 2. Both smoking and alcohol use are modifiable risk factors, meaning they can be prevented. 3. By avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol intake, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing laryngeal cancer. 4. Therefore, laryngeal cancer is considered one of the most preventable types of cancer. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B. Inhaling polluted air can be a risk factor for laryngeal cancer, so this statement is inaccurate. C. Laryngeal cancer occurs more frequently in men than women, so this statement is incorrect. D. Squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma, is the most common type of laryngeal cancer, making this statement incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
Hypernatremia is associated with a:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Hypernatremia is defined by elevated serum sodium levels (>145mEq/L). Step 2: Serum osmolality of 245mOsm/kg is high, consistent with hypernatremia. Step 3: Urine specific gravity below 1.003 indicates dilute urine, a common finding in hypernatremia. Step 4: The combination of elevated serum sodium, high serum osmolality, and low urine specific gravity confirms hypernatremia. Summary: A: Incorrect, as high serum osmolality (not 245mOsm/kg) is associated with hypernatremia. B: Incorrect, as low urine specific gravity (not below 1.003) is seen in hypernatremia. C: Incorrect, as serum sodium needs to be >145mEq/L to indicate hypernatremia.
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