health assessment test bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering antiepileptic medications. This is because during an active seizure, the priority is to stop the seizure activity. Antiepileptic medications are specifically designed to prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of seizures. Placing the client on their side and protecting their head (choice A) is important for safety but does not address stopping the seizure. Loosening clothing and ensuring safety (choice B) is also important but does not directly address the seizure itself. Monitoring airway and giving oxygen (choice C) is crucial but does not actively stop the seizure. Therefore, administering antiepileptic medications is the most appropriate intervention to address the root cause of the seizure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a crucial parameter to monitor for clients on anticoagulant therapy, as it measures the effectiveness of the medication in preventing blood clots. By monitoring INR levels, the nurse can ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting complications. Choice A (Monitor platelet count) is incorrect because anticoagulant therapy does not directly affect platelet count, and monitoring platelets is more relevant for clients on antiplatelet therapy. Choice C (Monitor bleeding) is partially correct, but focusing solely on monitoring bleeding may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to anticoagulant therapy. Choice D (Monitor renal function) is incorrect as anticoagulant therapy primarily affects coagulation factors and not renal function. Renal function monitoring may be necessary for certain medications but is not a primary consideration for anticoagulant therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema and proteinuria. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products effectively, leading to fluid retention (edema) and protein leaking into the urine (proteinuria). Edema occurs due to fluid buildup from decreased kidney function. Proteinuria is a result of damaged glomeruli in the kidneys, allowing proteins to leak into the urine. Weight loss and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are not typical symptoms of CKD. Hypertension and tachycardia can occur in CKD due to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Hypothermia and bradycardia are not common symptoms of CKD and would be more indicative of other conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer epinephrine. This is the first step in the care of a client with a severe allergic reaction because epinephrine is the primary medication used to reverse the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis. Epinephrine acts quickly to constrict blood vessels, relax smooth muscles in the lungs to improve breathing, and increase heart rate. Administering epinephrine promptly can prevent progression to severe outcomes like respiratory failure or shock. Corticosteroids (B and C) are used as adjunct therapy and do not provide immediate relief. Applying a cold compress (D) does not address the systemic effects of anaphylaxis and can delay potentially life-saving treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the recommended initial medication for chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. It helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart, and reducing chest pain. Aspirin (choice B) is also usually given to reduce blood clot formation, but nitroglycerin is the priority for immediate relief. Morphine (choice C) may be used if nitroglycerin is ineffective, and beta blockers (choice D) are typically used for long-term management of heart conditions, not for immediate relief of chest pain.