ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scurvy. Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis. Without enough vitamin C, collagen production is impaired, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain. Incorrect Choices: A: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C. B: Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition due to inadequate intake of calories and protein, not specifically vitamin C. C: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition typically caused by inadequate protein intake, not vitamin C deficiency. In summary, the correct answer is D (Scurvy) because it directly relates to inadequate intake of vitamin C, while the other choices are associated with different nutrient deficiencies.
Question 2 of 5
Which client should avoid foods high in potassium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with renal disease may have impaired kidney function, leading to difficulty in regulating potassium levels. High potassium intake can further burden the kidneys, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Clients on diuretic therapy (choice A) may actually need to monitor potassium levels due to potential electrolyte imbalances. Clients with an ileostomy (choice B) typically do not have issues with potassium absorption. Clients with metabolic alkalosis (choice C) may have potassium shifts but do not necessarily need to avoid high-potassium foods unless specifically advised by their healthcare provider.
Question 3 of 5
What should be the nurse's first action for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. This is the nurse's first action for a client with a suspected MI because nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. This can help reduce chest pain and prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Administering nitroglycerin promptly is crucial in managing an MI. Monitoring cardiac rhythm (B) and assessing the ECG (C) are important steps, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence in addressing the client's immediate symptoms. Assisting with positioning (D) is not as urgent or directly related to managing an MI compared to administering nitroglycerin.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate teaching for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because increasing physical activity and reducing stress are important lifestyle changes for managing chronic hypertension. Exercise helps lower blood pressure and stress reduction techniques can help control hypertension. Option A is incorrect as reducing sodium intake, not increasing it, is recommended. Option C is incorrect as medications for hypertension should be taken as prescribed, not only when blood pressure increases. Option D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure should be done regularly, but not necessarily every week.
Question 5 of 5
What should be the nurse's first action for a client who has sustained a spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in a supine position. This is the first action because it helps prevent further injury to the spinal cord by maintaining alignment. Immobilizing the spine (choice A) is important but should come after placing the client in a supine position. Assessing the client's airway (choice B) is crucial but not the first action in a spinal cord injury. Encouraging deep breathing (choice D) is not appropriate as the priority is to stabilize the spine. In summary, placing the client in a supine position is the initial step to prevent worsening of the spinal cord injury, while the other choices are important but secondary actions.
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