ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
What assessment framework provides additional modesty for clients, such as teenage girls?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Head to toe. This assessment framework allows for modesty by assessing one body part at a time, starting from the head down to the toe. This approach ensures clients, especially teenage girls, feel comfortable and respected during the assessment process. Other choices like A (Body systems) involve assessing multiple body parts simultaneously, potentially compromising modesty. Functional assessment (B) focuses on assessing specific functions rather than individual body parts, which may not address the modesty concern. Focused assessment (C) targets a specific area of concern, which may not provide a comprehensive evaluation while also potentially overlooking modesty concerns.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of stroke. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. Monitoring for DVT is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism (A) is a potential complication of DVT but not the most direct concern. Hypertension (C) is a common condition but not directly linked to a history of stroke. Hyperglycemia (D) is more commonly associated with diabetes rather than stroke history. Monitoring for DVT in stroke patients is essential for early detection and intervention.
Question 3 of 5
Which client should avoid foods high in potassium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with renal disease may have impaired kidney function, leading to difficulty in regulating potassium levels. High potassium intake can further burden the kidneys, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Clients on diuretic therapy (choice A) may actually need to monitor potassium levels due to potential electrolyte imbalances. Clients with an ileostomy (choice B) typically do not have issues with potassium absorption. Clients with metabolic alkalosis (choice C) may have potassium shifts but do not necessarily need to avoid high-potassium foods unless specifically advised by their healthcare provider.
Question 4 of 5
What is the priority action for a client who presents with symptoms of stroke?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a CT scan. This is the priority action because it helps determine if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic, guiding treatment decisions. Monitoring blood pressure (B) is important but not the priority. Administering aspirin (C) can be considered after confirming the type of stroke. Administering thrombolytics (D) is indicated for ischemic stroke but should only be done after ruling out hemorrhagic stroke with a CT scan.
Question 5 of 5
Which condition places a client at risk for elevated ammonia levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.
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