ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023

Questions 94

ATI RN

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ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which enzyme initiates protein digestion in the stomach?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pepsin is the enzyme that initiates protein digestion in the stomach. It breaks down proteins into smaller peptides, aiding in their further digestion and absorption in the intestines. Salivary Amylase (Choice B) functions in breaking down dietary carbohydrates in the mouth, not proteins. CCK (Choice C) and Secretin (Choice D) are hormones involved in the digestion of fats and carbohydrates, not proteins. Therefore, Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of protein digestion in the stomach.

Question 2 of 5

Each is a characteristic manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG), except one. Which is the exception?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marasmus. Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition and is not a direct manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Choices A, B, and D are all characteristic manifestations of NUG. Gingival erythema, necrosis of interdental papilla, and metallic taste with foul odor are commonly associated with NUG due to the inflammatory and necrotic nature of the condition.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is working with a patient who recently had a stroke. The patient frequently chokes and coughs when eating and is having difficulty feeding herself. What is the best way to ensure adequate nutrition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best way to ensure adequate nutrition for a stroke patient who frequently chokes and coughs when eating and has difficulty feeding herself is to provide tube feedings. Tube feedings are a safe and effective method to deliver nutrition directly to the stomach or intestines, bypassing the swallowing mechanism, reducing the risk of aspiration. Having an aide feed her each meal (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of swallowing difficulty and aspiration risk. Asking a family member to be present at each meal (choice B) does not provide a definitive solution to the patient's nutritional needs. Placing the patient on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) (choice D) is a more invasive and typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate enteral feedings or have non-functional gastrointestinal tracts.

Question 4 of 5

What is the desirable resting systolic blood pressure for adults?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The desirable resting systolic blood pressure for adults is less than 120 mmHg. This blood pressure is associated with a lower risk of cardiovascular disease. Measurements higher than 120 mmHg (choices A and D) indicate elevated blood pressure, which can lead to hypertension and other health complications if not managed. A reading of less than 105 mmHg (choice B) could indicate low blood pressure, which also poses health risks such as dizziness and fainting.

Question 5 of 5

What activities best describe the work of the placenta during pregnancy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The placenta plays a crucial role in producing hormones that are necessary for maintaining pregnancy, supporting fetal development, and preparing the mother's body for childbirth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the placenta's primary function is not to surround and cushion the fetus, combine blood stores for nutrient exchange, or absorb vitamins and minerals. While the placenta does facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen between the mother and fetus, its hormone production is the most critical function during pregnancy.

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