geriatric nursing practice questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a red, swollen 3-day-old wound in an older person indicates delayed wound healing, which is abnormal. The skin's ability to heal slows down with age due to decreased collagen production and compromised immune response. Thinner and more fragile skin (choice A) are typical changes in older individuals but not necessarily abnormal. Greater number of freckles (choice C) is a common age-related change due to accumulated sun exposure. Loss of hair on the extremities (choice D) can occur with aging but is not necessarily abnormal unless it is sudden and widespread.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because suggesting appropriate resources like respite care and a senior citizens' center shows the nurse's understanding of the client's needs for social interaction and support. This approach addresses the client's isolation and the daughter's need for assistance in caring for her father. Choice B is incorrect because simply telling the daughter to allow her father to participate does not address the underlying issues of the client feeling in the way and the daughter's need for support. Choice C is incorrect as it ignores the client's need for social interaction and the daughter's need for assistance, prioritizing peace over the client's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as offering to stay with the client while he is isolated does not address the broader issue of the client's need for social engagement and the daughter's need for support.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: administer the lowest dose of 2 mg. In older adults, especially the elderly, it is essential to start with the lowest effective dose of medication to minimize the risk of adverse effects. This approach follows the principle of "start low and go slow" when administering medications to older adults due to age-related changes in drug metabolism and increased sensitivity to medications. Administering the lowest effective dose helps to reduce the risk of potential complications such as respiratory depression, sedation, and falls. Choice A (administer the highest dose of 6 mg) is incorrect because starting with the highest dose can increase the risk of adverse effects in older adults. Choice C (avoid the narcotic because of the risk of addiction) is incorrect as it is important to manage pain effectively in post-operative patients, and opioids can be safely used under proper supervision. Choice D (administer the dose only when the client asks for the medication 2 times) is incorrect as pain management should be

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Free radical theory. This theory states that aging is caused by the accumulation of damage from free radicals in the body, which can be countered by antioxidants found in fruits and vegetables. Thus, the nurse considering the importance of a diet high in fruits and vegetables aligns with the free radical theory. Incorrect choices: A: Oxidative stress theory focuses on the imbalance between free radicals and antioxidants, not specifically on fruits and vegetables. B: Immunological theory relates to the immune system's role in aging, not directly linked to diet. D: Telomere theory concerns the role of telomeres in aging, not directly related to the benefits of fruits and vegetables.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because antibiotics are not standard therapy for congestive heart failure in the elderly. The rationale is that antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not heart failure. A: ACE inhibitors are standard therapy as they help dilate blood vessels and reduce the workload on the heart. C: Diuretics help reduce fluid buildup in the body, which is beneficial for managing CHF symptoms. D: Beta blockers are used to reduce the heart's workload and help manage the stress response, making them standard therapy for CHF.