Nursing Process Test Bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Salicylate preparations. Salicylate can potentiate the effects of insulin, leading to hypoglycemia. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid this over-the-counter preparation when on insulin therapy. Antacids (A), vitamins with iron (B), and acetaminophen preparations (C) do not typically interact with insulin in a significant way.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing difficulty in urination due to benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to serious complications like acute urinary retention. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a surgical procedure that is used to relieve the obstruction caused by BPH. Given the urgency of the situation and the potential for acute complications, the surgery needs to be performed immediately to prevent further harm to the patient's health. Classifying this condition as an emergency ensures prompt intervention and prioritizes the patient's well-being. Summary: - B: C.urgent (not correct): While the surgery is time-sensitive, it does not require immediate intervention like in an emergency situation. - C: elective (not correct): Elective surgeries are planned in advance and are not typically performed in urgent situations like this one. - D: required (not correct): While the surgery is necessary for the patient's condition

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Concept map care plan. This type of care plan allows the nurse to visually represent the client's entire situation, including physical, emotional, and social aspects. By using interconnected concepts and relationships, the nurse can see the whole picture and identify potential interventions. Kardex (A) is a concise patient information summary, not comprehensive. Case management (B) focuses on coordinating services but may not capture the holistic view. Critical pathways (C) outline specific steps in care but may not address the client as a whole.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct answer): - In type II DM, there is some insulin present but it is insufficient to meet the body's needs. - Without sufficient insulin, the body turns to breaking down protein and fatty acids for energy. - This leads to the formation of ketones, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). - Therefore, the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop DKA is due to insufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acids for metabolic needs. Summary of other choices: - Choice A is incorrect because there is some insulin available in type II DM, though it may be insufficient. - Choice B is incorrect as type II diabetics do have fat and protein reserves. - Choice D is incorrect as insufficient serum glucose concentrations do not directly relate to the development of DKA in type II DM.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive family history. Pernicious anemia is an autoimmune condition where the body attacks its own intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency. Genetic predisposition plays a significant role in the development of pernicious anemia. Family history is a key risk factor as individuals with a family history of pernicious anemia are more likely to develop the condition. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Infectious agents or toxins do not directly cause pernicious anemia, although they can lead to other types of anemia. C: Acute or chronic blood loss can result in iron-deficiency anemia, not pernicious anemia. D: Inadequate dietary intake of vitamin B12 can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency anemia, but pernicious anemia specifically involves the body's inability to absorb B12 due to intrinsic factor deficiency, not dietary intake alone.