Nursing Process Exam Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Altered level of consciousness, because it is a critical assessment in determining Mr. Reyes's neurological status and overall well-being. Assessing for altered level of consciousness helps identify potential neurological issues, such as brain injury or stroke, which require immediate intervention. A: Decreased carotid pulses - This is related to cardiovascular assessment, not specific to Mr. Reyes's neurological status. C: Bleeding from oral cavity - While important to assess for, it is not directly related to Mr. Reyes's neurological status. D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is a specific neurological assessment, but altered level of consciousness takes priority in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The normal range of hemoglobin in adult blood is typically between 12-18 g/dL. This range is the most common and widely accepted range based on clinical guidelines and research studies. Hemoglobin levels outside this range may indicate anemia or other health conditions. Choice A (7-11 mg) is too low for normal hemoglobin levels in adults and indicates severe anemia. Choice B (14-20 mg) is slightly higher and could be normal for some individuals, but generally, 12-18 g/dL is the standard range. Choice D (20-26 mg) is too high and may indicate dehydration or other medical conditions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because drawing up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe prevents contamination. Clear insulin is drawn up first to avoid clouding from the cloudy insulin. This ensures accurate dosing and prevents potential medication errors. A: Incorrect. Administering insulin after the first meal may lead to hypoglycemia if the client skips or delays meals. B: Incorrect. Insulin should not be injected into the deltoid muscle as it can lead to inconsistent absorption rates. C: Incorrect. Vigorously shaking the insulin vial can cause bubbles, affecting the accuracy of the dose and potentially altering its effectiveness.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drop in blood pressure and rise in heart rate. After a splenectomy, the client is at risk for orthostatic hypotension due to decreased blood volume. A drop in blood pressure and a compensatory rise in heart rate are common orthostatic changes. This occurs because the body tries to maintain perfusion to vital organs. A rise in blood pressure and heart rate (Choice A) would not align with orthostatic changes. A rise in blood pressure and drop in heart rate (Choice B) is contradictory to the body's compensatory response to maintain perfusion. Therefore, the most supportive vital sign values for abnormal orthostatic changes in this client would be a drop in blood pressure and a rise in heart rate.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia (hair loss) is a common adverse reaction of chlorambucil, typically occurring 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration. This is due to the drug's effect on rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Immediate onset (Choice A) is unlikely as it takes time for the drug to affect hair growth. One week (Choice C) is too soon for alopecia to manifest. One month (Choice D) is too long as alopecia usually occurs earlier. Therefore, the correct window for alopecia onset after chlorambucil administration is 2 to 3 weeks.