ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What should the healthcare provider do first when a patient is admitted with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority intervention when a patient presents with chest pain and suspected acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and relieve chest pain. It is crucial to address the pain and potential ischemia promptly to prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Getting IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important assessments and interventions, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence in managing acute coronary syndrome.
Question 2 of 5
What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm�?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm� indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.
Question 3 of 5
What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.
Question 4 of 5
A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.
Question 5 of 5
During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, what is the purpose of this procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, the purpose of this procedure is to release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area. This intervention is crucial in severe burns where the formation of eschar (dead tissue) can lead to increased pressure, compromising circulation and potentially causing further tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because escharotomy specifically aims to address pressure and circulation issues in severe burn injuries, rather than removing dead tissue, improving breathing, or preventing infection.
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