ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This intervention is a priority for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome because nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, increase blood flow to the heart muscle, relieve chest pain, and reduce cardiac workload. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing myocardial infarction but is not the initial priority. Getting IV access (choice C) is essential for medication administration and fluid resuscitation but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin. Auscultating heart sounds (choice D) is a routine assessment but does not address the immediate need to relieve chest pain and improve blood flow to the heart in acute coronary syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by bronchospasms in allergic reactions. Methylprednisolone (Choice B) is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory properties and is typically given after bronchodilators. Cromolyn (Choice C) is a mast cell stabilizer that is used for the prevention of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief. Aminophylline (Choice D) is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used nowadays due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the appropriate action is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment helps alleviate the cramping by reducing the pressure of the solution entering the colon. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) is not necessary unless there are other complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may not address the immediate discomfort caused by cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) can exacerbate the cramping and should be avoided.