ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

Questions 66

ATI RN

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ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Questions

Question 1 of 5

What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.

Question 2 of 5

What is the first medication to give for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing due to an allergic reaction. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps relieve bronchospasm quickly. Cromolyn is more commonly used for the prevention of asthma symptoms rather than for acute treatment. Methylprednisolone and aminophylline are not the first-line medications for acute wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

Question 3 of 5

What should be monitored in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: In a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia, monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial. This helps in preventing and identifying hypoglycemia promptly. Choice B, monitoring for respiratory distress, is not directly related to hypoglycemia caused by insulin. Choice C, monitoring for hypertension, is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Choice D, monitoring for hyperkalemia, is not a common concern in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia.

Question 4 of 5

What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

Question 5 of 5

What are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms are classic signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition characterized by reduced circulation in a closed muscle compartment. The pain is typically severe and disproportionate to the injury, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage and loss of function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the hallmark symptoms of compartment syndrome. Localized swelling and redness may be present but are not specific to this condition. Fever and swelling are more indicative of inflammation or infection, while weakness and fatigue are nonspecific and do not typically occur in isolation in compartment syndrome.

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