Nursing Process Final Exam Questions

Questions 71

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Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the purpose of pursed lip breathing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because pursed lip breathing helps to slow down and control the exhalation process, allowing the individual to exhale a smaller volume of air with more force. This helps to prevent air trapping in the lungs, improve oxygen exchange, and reduce shortness of breath. B: Incorrect - Pursed lip breathing does not increase expiration but rather controls it. C: Incorrect - While pursed lip breathing can promote deep breathing and better oxygen exchange, its primary purpose is to regulate exhalation volume. D: Incorrect - Pursed lip breathing does not specifically target the upper thorax but rather facilitates a more efficient breathing pattern by reducing air trapping in the lungs.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. This type of diagnosis focuses on improving the client's well-being and maximizing their health potential. By adding Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination to the care plan, the nurse acknowledges the patient's willingness to learn self-catheterization, which aligns with health promotion. Other choices are incorrect because: A (Risk) implies potential harm, B (Problem focused) focuses on current issues, and D (Collaborative problem) involves multiple healthcare providers working together on a specific problem.

Question 3 of 5

A resident of a long-term care facility refuses to eat until she has had her hair combed and her make-up applied. In this case, what client need should have priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The need to feel good about oneself. This is the priority because the resident's refusal to eat is tied to her desire to maintain her personal appearance and feel good about herself. By addressing this need first, the resident may become more willing to eat. The other choices are incorrect because while nutrition (A) is important, addressing the resident's self-esteem and well-being should come first. The need to live in a safe environment (C) is also important but not the priority in this specific scenario. The need for love from others (D) is significant but not directly related to the resident's refusal to eat based on her personal grooming preferences.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with possible Cushing�s syndrome. In a client with Cushing�s syndrome, the nurse would expect to find:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to central obesity with fat accumulation in the trunk and dorsocervical area (buffalo hump). This is due to cortisol's role in redistributing fat. A: hypotension is incorrect because individuals with Cushing's syndrome typically have hypertension due to the effects of excess cortisol on blood pressure regulation. B: thick, coarse skin is incorrect as individuals with Cushing's syndrome may have thin, fragile skin due to decreased collagen formation. D: weight gain in arms and legs is incorrect as the weight gain in Cushing's syndrome tends to be centralized in the trunk and face rather than the extremities.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

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