Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions

Questions 28

ATI RN

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Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal is typically .5 to 1 pound per week. This rate of weight loss is considered safe and sustainable in the long term. Losing weight too quickly (options B, C, D) can be harmful to your health and may lead to muscle loss, nutritional deficiencies, and a slow metabolism. Rapid weight loss is also harder to maintain in the long run. Gradual weight loss of .5 to 1 pound per week allows for healthy changes to diet and exercise habits, making it more likely to be maintained over time. It is also more likely to result in lasting weight loss and overall improvements in health and well-being.

Question 2 of 5

What is the most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal is typically .5 to 1 pound per week. This rate of weight loss is considered safe and sustainable in the long term. Losing weight too quickly (options B, C, D) can be harmful to your health and may lead to muscle loss, nutritional deficiencies, and a slow metabolism. Rapid weight loss is also harder to maintain in the long run. Gradual weight loss of .5 to 1 pound per week allows for healthy changes to diet and exercise habits, making it more likely to be maintained over time. It is also more likely to result in lasting weight loss and overall improvements in health and well-being.

Question 3 of 5

A 29-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for evaluation of a headache. The tightening sensation is located all over the head and is of moderate intensity. It used to last minutes, but this time it has lasted for 5 days. He denies photophobia and nausea. He spends several hours each day at a computer monitor/keyboard. He has tried over-the-counter medication; it has dulled the pain but not taken it away. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The description provided fits the criteria for tension-type headache. Tension-type headaches are typically described as a mild to moderate, dull, band-like pressure or tightness around the head. They can last from minutes to days and are often triggered by stress, anxiety, poor posture, or prolonged computer use. The absence of symptoms like photophobia and nausea, along with the response to over-the-counter medication, further support the diagnosis of tension-type headache in this case. Other headache types such as migraines or cluster headaches usually present with additional symptoms like nausea, photophobia, or tearing of the eye, which are not mentioned in this scenario. Analgesic rebound headaches typically occur in individuals who overuse pain medications, leading to worsening headaches when the medication wears off, but this patient's history does not suggest such misuse.

Question 4 of 5

A 30-year-old man notices a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola. He has no other symptoms and no diagnosis of breast cancer in his first-degree relatives. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a 30-year-old man with a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola and no other symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is breast tissue. Gynecomastia is a common condition in males where there is proliferation of breast tissue. It typically presents as a firm subareolar mass and can occur due to hormonal imbalances, medication use, or underlying medical conditions. Given the lack of family history of breast cancer, absence of other symptoms, and the age of the patient, breast tissue is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Breast cancer is less likely in this scenario, especially without any additional concerning findings or family history. Fibrocystic disease and lymph node involvement are also less likely given the presentation of a firm mass under the areola.

Question 5 of 5

A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago, and she is sexually active. She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past medical history is significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy, and her father has type 2 diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up. She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus. Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva is most likely causing her problems?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described is consistent with a Bartholin's gland infection, also known as Bartholin's abscess. The Bartholin's glands are located on each side of the vaginal opening and can become blocked, leading to glandular secretions accumulating and forming an abscess. Symptoms of Bartholin's gland infection include pain, swelling, and tenderness in the vulvar area. The pain can be severe and exacerbated by sitting, similar to what the patient is experiencing. On examination, a red, tense swelling to the side of the introitus is a characteristic finding.

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