Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The description provided, which includes a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation and absence of hair shafts, is characteristic of alopecia areata. Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in round or oval patches on the scalp or other parts of the body. It is not associated with pulling or twisting of hair (trichotillomania), fungal infection (tinea capitis), or hair loss due to constant pulling force (traction alopecia). In alopecia areata, the affected area usually appears smooth and without visible signs of irritation. Treatment options for alopecia areata may include corticosteroid injections, topical immunotherapy, or minoxidil.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A sudden, painful unilateral loss of vision is a medical emergency that may be caused by central retinal artery occlusion. This condition occurs when the main artery supplying blood to the retina becomes blocked, leading to a sudden and severe reduction in blood flow to the eye. The lack of blood flow can cause irreversible damage to the retina, resulting in a significant loss of vision. Patients with central retinal artery occlusion typically present with sudden, painless, and severe vision loss in one eye. Immediate medical attention is crucial to try to restore blood flow and minimize potential permanent vision loss in these cases. Vitreous hemorrhage, macular degeneration, and optic neuritis do not typically present with sudden, painful unilateral loss of vision as seen in central retinal artery occlusion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: It is important to adjust your approach based on the clinical context and your suspicion for a certain condition. If you have never found a positive result with a particular maneuver and you are usually pressed for time during examinations, it may be more beneficial to reserve that maneuver for situations where you have a higher suspicion for a correlating condition. This allows you to use your time and resources more effectively, targeting specific tests based on the clinical scenario to increase the chances of identifying any relevant issues. By using the test selectively, you can improve the diagnostic yield without compromising the overall assessment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a 30-year-old man with a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola and no other symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is breast tissue. Gynecomastia is a common condition in males where there is proliferation of breast tissue. It typically presents as a firm subareolar mass and can occur due to hormonal imbalances, medication use, or underlying medical conditions. Given the lack of family history of breast cancer, absence of other symptoms, and the age of the patient, breast tissue is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Breast cancer is less likely in this scenario, especially without any additional concerning findings or family history. Fibrocystic disease and lymph node involvement are also less likely given the presentation of a firm mass under the areola.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Placing the patient in the left lateral decubitus position and auscultating with the bell is important to detect subtle sounds like the mitral stenosis murmur, opening snap of the mitral valve, and S3 and S4 gallops. The left lateral decubitus position helps bring the heart closer to the chest wall, allowing for better transmission of these sounds that may be missed in the supine position.