ATI RN
physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the mechanism of action of prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) in a patient with transposition of the great arteries?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PGE1 helps maintain the ductus arteriosus, allowing for normal circulation in transposition of the great arteries.
Question 2 of 5
The daughter of a 79-year-old woman notes that her mother, who has dementia and lives with her, is wetting herself when she attends her new day program. Program staff have requested that �something be done� as she is requiring a clothes change nearly every time she is there. She cannot describe the circumstances of leakage, saying �it just comes.� Leakage is uncommon at home. Her medications include donepezil and acetaminophen. Physical examination is normal. Initial treatment approach will require intervention by which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given the complexity of dementia and incontinence, the physician should be involved in assessing the cause and recommending treatment.
Question 3 of 5
Upon assessment, the nurse notes the patient has an enlarged thyroid. Which action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An enlarged thyroid warrants further investigation, such as thyroid function tests and imaging (ultrasound).
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following tests is most commonly used to assess kidney function?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The creatinine clearance test is a key measure of kidney function and glomerular filtration rate.
Question 5 of 5
A 79-year-old woman with a 1.5-cm breast cancer underwent lumpectomy. Pathology revealed ductal carcinoma that is hormone receptor negative (estrogen receptor 0%, progesterone receptor 1%) and HER2/neu negative. Surgical margins were adequate and uninvolved with cancer. Sentinel lymph node sampling was negative for lymph node involvement. She has good performance status and no activities of daily living (ADL) or instrumental (IADL) dependencies. What treatment would you recommend?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: No further treatment is necessary given the patient's good prognosis and lack of lymph node involvement or metastasis.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access