hesi health assessment test bank 2023

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer corticosteroids. In a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction, the first priority is to address potential inflammation in the myocardium. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and stabilize the myocardium, which is crucial in preventing further damage post-myocardial infarction. Administering nitroglycerin (A) is important for vasodilation, but it is typically used after corticosteroids. Morphine (B) and analgesics (C) may provide pain relief but do not address the underlying inflammation. Administering corticosteroids is the most appropriate first step to manage myocardial inflammation and protect the heart tissue.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways quickly to improve breathing. Bronchodilators work rapidly to dilate the constricted airways, providing immediate relief. Corticosteroids are used for long-term management and take time to be effective. Administering morphine is not recommended as it can depress the respiratory system. Performing an ECG is not necessary in the acute management of an asthma attack.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because using the inhaler every time the patient feels short of breath, even without a flare-up, is not the recommended practice for managing COPD. Inhalers should be used as prescribed by the healthcare provider or only during exacerbations. Here's the rationale: 1. Using the inhaler excessively can lead to overuse of medication and potential side effects. 2. It is important for patients to differentiate between regular management and acute exacerbations. 3. Monitoring oxygen levels (choice D) is essential for COPD management. 4. Quitting smoking (choice A) and deep breathing exercises (choice B) are positive self-management strategies for COPD.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because memory loss after a fall can be indicative of a more serious issue like a head injury or neurological problem. A complete mental health examination by the nurse can help assess the extent of memory loss, identify potential causes, and determine appropriate interventions. Referring to a psychometrician (choice B) may not address the immediate health concern. Integrating the mental health examination into history taking and physical examination (choice C) is important but may not be as thorough as a complete mental health examination by a professional. Reassuring the wife that memory loss is normal (choice D) may lead to overlooking a potentially serious health issue.