ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

Questions 66

ATI RN

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ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the expected finding in a patient with compartment syndrome?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the expected finding includes unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These are classic signs of compartment syndrome and indicate compromised blood flow and tissue perfusion, necessitating urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized swelling and redness, numbness and tingling, as well as fever and infection, are not typical findings associated with compartment syndrome.

Question 2 of 5

What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

Question 3 of 5

What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.

Question 4 of 5

What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.

Question 5 of 5

What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with GERD?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid mint and spicy foods for a patient with GERD. These foods can increase gastric acid secretion and worsen symptoms of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms due to increased gastric pressure when lying down. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased gastric distention, potentially triggering GERD symptoms. Choice D, avoiding NSAIDs, though important for some patients with GERD due to their potential to irritate the stomach lining, is not a general dietary recommendation for all GERD patients.

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