ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

Questions 66

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ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Questions

Question 1 of 5

What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

Question 2 of 5

What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common symptom of hypokalemia and should be closely monitored in affected patients. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and even paralysis. While bradycardia (slow heart rate) can be associated with severe hypokalemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is more specific to the condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes is not typically a primary monitoring parameter for hypokalemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to hypokalemia, as hypokalemia is primarily associated with potassium levels in the blood.

Question 3 of 5

What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.

Question 4 of 5

A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.

Question 5 of 5

What is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina as it helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, relieve chest pain, and prevent further cardiac damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) may be important but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin in this scenario. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and administering aspirin (choice D) are also important aspects of managing unstable angina, but they are not the immediate priority intervention when a patient is experiencing chest pain.

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