Final Exam Pathophysiology

Questions 38

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Final Exam Pathophysiology Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

Question 2 of 5

A patient has developed a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx. What defense mechanism is most affected by this homeostatic change?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx indicates a breakdown of the skin's integrity due to prolonged pressure. The skin is the primary defense mechanism of the body against external pathogens. When the skin is compromised, it can lead to infections and other complications. The mucous membrane (Choice A) plays a role in protecting internal surfaces, not the skin. The respiratory tract (Choice B) is involved in breathing and not directly related to the skin's defense. The gastrointestinal tract (Choice D) is responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients, not the primary defense mechanism against external threats like the skin.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is conducting an assessment on a client who presents with symptoms that are characteristic of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). What assessment finding would be expected in this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperreflexia. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), hyperreflexia is a common assessment finding due to the degeneration of upper motor neurons. This results in an overactive reflex response to stimuli. Reduced reflexes in all four limbs (choice A) are not typically seen in ALS; instead, hyperreflexia is more common. Decreased cognitive function (choice B) is not a primary characteristic of ALS. Involuntary muscle contractions (choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as dystonia or myoclonus, not ALS.

Question 4 of 5

Which statement best conveys an aspect of the role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cerebrospinal fluid primarily cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury. Choice A is incorrect because while CSF contributes to the brain's immune environment, its main role is not providing immune protection as a physical barrier. Choice C is incorrect because CSF has a significant role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products, rather than a limited one. Choice D is incorrect as CSF is not primarily a medium for nerve impulse transmission, but rather serves as a protective and supportive fluid.

Question 5 of 5

A client with Guillain-Barr� syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barr� syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.

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