ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.
Question 2 of 5
During childhood, the thymus decreases in size, and this is referred to as ______ atrophy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Physiologic.' Physiologic atrophy is a normal part of development, like the reduction in thymus size during childhood. Pathologic atrophy (choice B) refers to tissue wasting due to disease, not a normal process like the reduction in thymus size. Disuse atrophy (choice C) results from a lack of physical activity or stimulation, which is not the case with thymus size reduction. Neurogenic atrophy (choice D) is caused by damage to or diseases of the nerves supplying the muscles, not related to the thymus size reduction seen in childhood.
Question 3 of 5
What is the action of amphotericin B?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication that acts by binding to ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes, forming pores that disrupt the integrity of the membrane. This action leads to leakage of cellular contents and ultimately cell death. Choice B is incorrect as amphotericin B does not bind to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol. Choice C is incorrect as the drug primarily affects the cell membrane rather than the cell wall. Choice D is also incorrect as amphotericin B does not inhibit glucan synthetase.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.
Question 5 of 5
Which information would indicate more teaching is needed regarding hypersensitivity reactions? Type _______ hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions involve cell-mediated immunity, not an antibody response. This question tests knowledge of hypersensitivity reactions and their classification. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve IgE antibodies, Type II involves IgG or IgM antibodies, and Type III involves immune complex deposition. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve T cells, not antibodies. Therefore, if a person believes that Type IV hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response, more teaching is required.
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