ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What equipment should the nurse prepare for the primary care provider when a woman says she is concerned about possible Chlamydia infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia collection kit. The primary care provider will need the collection kit to gather a sample for testing. A Chlamydia slide (A) is not necessary as the provider needs to collect a sample first. A Chlamydia swab (C) is used to collect the sample, not to provide to the provider. A Chlamydia wet mount (D) is not appropriate for Chlamydia testing, as it is typically used for other types of infections.
Question 2 of 5
A client with neuromuscular disorder is receiving intensive nursing care. The client is likely to face the risk for impaired skin integrity. Which of the ff must the nurse ensure to prevent skin breakdown in the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use pressure relieving devices when the client is in bed. This is because pressure ulcers are a common risk for individuals with neuromuscular disorders due to immobility. Pressure relieving devices such as special mattresses or cushions help redistribute pressure and prevent skin breakdown. Incorrect choices: A: Preventing strenuous exercises is not directly related to preventing skin breakdown in this case. C: Placing the client in Fowler's position may be beneficial for respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. D: Avoiding daily baths with soaps may lead to poor hygiene and does not specifically address the risk of skin breakdown.
Question 3 of 5
A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.
Question 4 of 5
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is mainly found in animal-based foods like meats and seafood. Meats, particularly red meats, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain zinc. Legumes (Choice C) are sources of other minerals but not high in zinc. Fruits and vegetables (Choices A and B) are not significant sources of zinc. The correct answer provides the best options for the cancer patient to obtain an adequate amount of zinc for recovery.
Question 5 of 5
. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching plan for a client requiring insulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe. This is important because mixing insulin requires drawing up the clear (short-acting) insulin first to prevent contamination. This ensures accurate dosing and prevents clouding of the insulin. Drawing up cloudy insulin first can lead to inaccurate dosing and potential mixing errors. Administering insulin after the first meal (choice A) is not the focus of this question. Administering insulin at a 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle (choice B) is not recommended for insulin injections. Vigorously shaking the vial of insulin before withdrawal (choice C) can cause bubbles and affect the accuracy of the dose.
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