microbiology an introduction tortora test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: I'm sorry, but there seems to be a mistake in the question provided. The correct answer should be A: smallpox. Variola virus indeed causes smallpox, not jock itch. Smallpox is a highly contagious disease characterized by fever and rash, while jock itch, ringworm, and shingles are caused by different pathogens and have distinct symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria (Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus) are known to cause urinary tract infections. E. coli is the most common causative agent of UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urethra. P. aeruginosa can cause UTIs in hospitalized patients with catheters. S. aureus is less common but can lead to UTIs, especially in individuals with underlying health conditions. Therefore, all three bacteria are potential pathogens for UTIs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria can individually cause UTIs, making the correct answer D.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria mentioned (Clostridium botulinum, Salmonella enterica, Escherichia coli) are associated with foodborne illnesses. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, Salmonella enterica causes salmonellosis, and Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning. Each of these bacteria can contaminate food and lead to illnesses when consumed. Therefore, selecting all of the above is the correct choice. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because each of those bacteria individually is associated with foodborne illnesses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is known to inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism. 2. Inhibition of this enzyme leads to accumulation of acetaldehyde, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 3. This reaction is known as the disulfiram-like reaction. 4. Reserpine, Clonidine, and Diazepam do not have this specific mechanism of action. Summary: - Option A (Metronidazole) is correct due to its inhibition of alcohol metabolism. - Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not exhibit this interaction with alcohol metabolism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is known to be the primary cause of peptic ulcers by colonizing the stomach lining and causing inflammation. It produces urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid and has a flagellum for mobility. Escherichia coli (A) is mainly associated with foodborne illnesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat and skin infections. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) causes tuberculosis, a respiratory infection. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct choice for peptic ulcers based on its unique characteristics and pathogenicity.