Midwifery Practice Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in cases of anteriorly situated placenta praevia, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, a classical caesarean section is indicated to prevent severe bleeding during delivery. For choice B, a posteriorly situated placenta praevia does not necessitate a classical caesarean section. Choice C, gestation of more than 32 weeks, does not specifically indicate the need for a classical caesarean section. Choice D, aesthetic purpose on maternal request, is not a valid medical indication for a classical caesarean section.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Choanal atresia. The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract with abnormal apical position is typically associated with choanal atresia, which is a blockage or narrowing of the back of the nasal passage. This condition can lead to respiratory distress in newborns due to difficulty breathing through the nose. Explanation: 1. Laryngeal stridor (Choice A) is a high-pitched noise during breathing and is not typically associated with abnormal apical position. 2. Diaphragmatic hernia (Choice B) is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, but it is not related to abnormal apical position. 3. Tracheo-bronchi fistula (Choice D) is an abnormal connection between the trachea and bronchi, which is not associated with abnormal apical position. In summary, choanal atresia is the correct answer because it fits the description of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Achalasia is a motility disorder characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and lower esophageal sphincter relaxation. This dysfunction can lead to stagnant food in the esophagus, causing regurgitation and increased intra-esophageal pressure, which can trigger GERD. Squamous cell carcinoma (choice A) is not directly linked to achalasia. Esophageal atrophy (choice C) is not a typical consequence of achalasia. Malabsorption syndromes (choice D) are not directly associated with achalasia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placental insufficiency. Placental insufficiency can lead to decreased oxygen and nutrient supply to the fetus, causing fetal distress during labor. This can result in abnormal fetal heart rate patterns and potential complications. A: Umbilical cord prolapse can also cause fetal distress but is less common than placental insufficiency. B: Uterine rupture is a serious complication but typically presents with maternal symptoms rather than fetal distress. D: Fetal position can impact labor progress but is not typically the primary cause of fetal distress.