ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders. A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children. In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.
Question 2 of 5
While reviewing the head CT scan of a patient following a motor vehicle accident, the AGACNP appreciates a crescent-shaped fluid collection. This most likely represents
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute epidural hematoma. A crescent-shaped fluid collection seen on a head CT scan following trauma is indicative of an epidural hematoma, which typically occurs due to an arterial bleed between the dura mater and the skull. This collection appears biconvex due to the restriction of the hematoma by the dura mater and is often associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: A: Acute subdural hematoma typically presents as a crescent-shaped collection but is located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater, not between the dura mater and skull as seen in epidural hematomas. C: Acute uncal herniation involves displacement of the uncus of the temporal lobe, leading to compression of the brainstem, but it does not manifest as a crescent-shaped fluid collection. D: Acute brainstem compression does not typically present as a distinct crescent-shaped
Question 3 of 5
A patient with suspected Cushings syndrome is being evaluated to establish the diagnosis and cause. Patients with an adrenal tumor typically will demonstrate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Low ACTH and low cortisol) because in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor autonomously produces cortisol, leading to suppression of ACTH secretion from the pituitary. This results in low ACTH levels and high cortisol levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the characteristic hormone levels seen in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.
Question 4 of 5
Jake is a 32-year-old patient who is recovering from major abdominal surgery and organ resection following a catastrophic motor vehicle accident. Due to the nature of his injuries, a large portion of his jejunum had to be resected. In planning for his recovery and nutritional needs, the AGACNP considers that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: His procedure has put him at significant risk for B12 absorption problems. Rationale: 1. Jejunum is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption, including B12. 2. Resection of a large portion of the jejunum can lead to malabsorption of B12. 3. B12 is essential for neurological function and red blood cell production. 4. Patients with significant jejunum resection are at high risk for B12 deficiency. 5. Monitoring B12 levels and potentially requiring supplementation is crucial for patients like Jake. Summary of other choices: A: Incorrect. Lifetime issues with diarrhea are not necessarily expected following jejunum resection. C: Incorrect. The ileum may assume some functions of the jejunum but cannot fully compensate. D: Incorrect. Enteral nutrition should not be delayed for months as it is essential for Jake's recovery and nutritional needs.
Question 5 of 5
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections. A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection. B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism. C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.
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