Midwifery Practice Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders. A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children. In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Kleihauer-Betke acid-elution test is recommended in the management of hemolytic jaundice prenatally because it helps determine the amount of fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is crucial for assessing the need for Rh immune globulin administration to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive fetuses. This test helps quantify the amount of fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulation, guiding appropriate management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. The other choices (A, C, D) do not specifically require the Kleihauer-Betke test for management and are not directly related to fetal-maternal hemorrhage assessment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Obstructed labor can lead to prolonged pressure on the uterus, causing hemorrhage and uterine rupture (A). 2. Prolonged labor can result in fetal distress due to reduced oxygen supply and potential infection (B). 3. Therefore, both complications mentioned in A and B can occur in obstructed labor. Summary: A: Incorrect - Preterm birth and asphyxia are not directly related to obstructed labor. B: Incorrect - Only fetal distress and infection are commonly associated with obstructed labor. C: Incorrect - Both A and B are possible complications of obstructed labor, making D the correct choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Shoulder dystocia is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head because the anterior shoulder gets stuck behind the pubic symphysis during childbirth. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed promptly. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Impaction of the posterior shoulder is not referred to as shoulder dystocia; it is the impaction of the anterior shoulder that causes the complication. C: Shoulder dystocia is not caused by a compound presentation of the fetus, which refers to a situation where more than one fetal part presents at the maternal pelvis simultaneously. D: Shoulder dystocia is indeed an emergency that requires immediate intervention, as delays can lead to birth injuries and complications. It does not resolve on its own and needs medical assistance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine is recommended for pregnant women in malaria endemic areas due to its safety and efficacy in preventing malaria during pregnancy. Step 2: Pregnant women are at higher risk of severe complications from malaria, making prophylaxis crucial. Step 3: The World Health Organization recommends intermittent preventive treatment with Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine for pregnant women in malaria-endemic areas. Step 4: Option A aligns with these guidelines, making it the correct choice. Summary: Option B is incorrect because pregnant women are considered at risk regardless of testing. Option C is incorrect as the timing of administration is not based on quickening. Option D is incorrect as the recommended number of doses may vary based on guidelines.