Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of any other abnormal findings suggests that Mr. Thornton is currently experiencing an anterior wall infarction. This is indicated by the localized area of myocardial necrosis due to prolonged ischemia. Option A is incorrect because ischemia would typically present with reversible changes rather than necrosis. Option C is incorrect as NSTEMI would show some abnormal findings. Option D is incorrect as STEMI would show more significant ECG changes and enzyme elevation. In summary, the absence of other abnormalities points towards an acute event like an anterior wall infarction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A HIDA scan. A HIDA scan is the most appropriate imaging study for investigating the likely cause in this case because the patient's symptoms (abdominal pain centered on the right side just under the ribcage, tenderness in the right upper quadrant) are suggestive of a possible gallbladder issue, such as cholecystitis or biliary colic. A HIDA scan is specifically used to evaluate the gallbladder and biliary system. A: Abdominal radiographs would not provide detailed information about the gallbladder or biliary system, and are not the best choice in this scenario. B: A CT scan of the abdomen with contrast can be helpful in some situations, but it may not provide the specific information needed to evaluate the gallbladder and biliary system. C: Right upper quadrant ultrasound is a good initial imaging study for evaluating gallbladder disease, but a HIDA scan is more specific for functional assessment of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Step 2: Inability to eat or retain food all through is a hallmark feature due to excessive vomiting. Step 3: This leads to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss. Step 4: Pallor, cyanosis, weakness, and smaller fundal height are not specific to hyperemesis gravidarum. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to the primary symptom of excessive vomiting in hyperemesis gravidarum, while the other choices are not specific to this condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the baby's head is extended, allowing for descent through the birth canal. Brow presentation (A) and shoulder presentation (C) may require cesarean delivery due to the atypical presentation of the baby. Unstable lie (D) refers to the baby being in a transverse position, which also necessitates a cesarean section. Face presentation is the only option where vaginal delivery may be possible due to the extended position of the baby's head.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In True cephalopelvic disproportion, the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. This condition often requires operative delivery (C-section) as a vaginal birth is not possible. Choice D is correct because operative delivery is indeed needed to safely deliver the baby. Choice A is incorrect as not all patients with cephalopelvic disproportion will necessarily require operative delivery. Choice B is also incorrect as the issue cannot generally be overcome during labor due to physical constraints. Choice C is incorrect as operative delivery is usually necessary in cases of true cephalopelvic disproportion to prevent complications.