microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because virulence factors of bacteria are characteristics that enable them to cause disease. Colonization allows bacteria to establish and multiply in the host. Invasion refers to the ability to penetrate host tissues. Toxins are substances produced by bacteria that harm the host. Adhesion is crucial for bacteria to attach to host cells. A: Size and mutation are not typical virulence factors. Resistance is not directly related to causing disease. C: While toxins and evasion of body defenses are correct, motility and size are not universally considered virulence factors. D: Chemotaxis and fermentation are not primary virulence factors, unlike colonization and toxins.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infectious process. The term "infection" refers to the invasion of a host organism's body tissues by disease-causing agents, such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites. It encompasses the entire process from the initial entry of the pathogen to the host's response and resolution. Choice B, "Infectious disease," is incorrect as it specifically refers to the clinical manifestation of an infection. Choice C is irrelevant, and Choice D is incorrect as the term "infection" is indeed equivalent to the infectious process.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.