Microbiology Basic and Clinical Principles Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Iodine solution contains iodine, a halogen with antiseptic properties. 2. Iodine is effective against fungi, making it suitable for treating dermatomycosis. 3. Iodine solution is commonly used in dermatology for its fungicidal properties. 4. Formalin, methylene blue, and brilliant green do not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties. Summary: - Formalin is a disinfectant, not an antiseptic for dermatomycosis. - Methylene blue is an antifungal dye, not used as an antiseptic. - Brilliant green is an antiseptic, but does not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C: Halophiles Rationale: 1. Halophiles are bacteria adapted to high salt environments. 2. They have specific mechanisms to tolerate high salt concentrations. 3. Acidophiles thrive in acidic conditions. 4. Thermophiles prefer high temperature environments. 5. Mesophiles grow best at moderate temperatures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: destruction of the local blood supply. In osteomyelitis, the infection occurs in the bone, which has a relatively poor blood supply compared to soft tissues. This limited blood flow makes it challenging for antibiotics to reach the infection site effectively, hindering their ability to combat the infection. Destruction of the local blood supply restricts the delivery of antibiotics and immune cells to the infected bone, leading to poor treatment outcomes. Summary: - Option A is correct because the limited blood supply in bones hinders antibiotic delivery. - Option B is incorrect as denaturing by normal flora does not impact antibiotic reach to the infection site. - Option C is incorrect as inflammation and edema, while present, do not primarily hinder antibiotic delivery. - Option D is incorrect as excessive pus production does not directly impede antibiotic access to the infection site.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The description of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with pointed ends and capsules matches the morphology of S. pneumoniae. This bacterium is known to cause pneumonia, especially in individuals with underlying conditions like COPD. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears in clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a cocci. Hence, based on the morphology and clinical context, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the likely microorganism causing pneumonia in this patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by inflammation of urogenital tracts. The description of big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies, big nucleus, and undulating membrane matches the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas hominis and Trichomonas buccalis are different species that do not cause urogenital infections. Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan parasite causing African trypanosomiasis and does not match the described morphology or symptoms.