microbiology an introduction test bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) is the sample used for proving epidemic meningitis. It should be transported at 37�C to maintain its integrity. Blood and nasopharyngeal secretions are not typically used for diagnosing meningitis. Choice B, feces, is unrelated to the diagnosis of meningitis. Choice C, CSF transported at +4�C, is incorrect as it should be transported at 37�C to prevent degradation of the sample. Therefore, A is the correct choice for proving epidemic meningitis due to the specificity of the sample and the proper transport conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. In this case, the patient's symptoms align with botulism due to the ingestion of homemade mushrooms. The symptoms of double vision, heavy breathing, paleness, widened pupils, swallowing difficulties, bradycardia, and constipation are all classic signs of botulism poisoning. The toxin affects the nervous system and can lead to paralysis. The other choices (B: Yersiniosis, C: Leptospirosis, D: Salmonellosis) do not match the patient's symptoms and history of consuming mushrooms, making them incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Filamentous spiral nucleocapsid is characteristic of Filoviridae, such as Ebola virus. 2. Linear unsegmented single strand (-) RNA is a key feature of Filoviridae genomes. 3. The lipid bilayer membrane of cellular origin is found in Filoviridae viruses. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Filoviridae) due to the alignment of all three morphological features. Summary: - A (Picornaviridae): Has an icosahedral capsid, not filamentous spiral. - C (Orthomyxoviridae): Has a segmented genome, not linear unsegmented. - D (Togaviridae): Has a spherical capsid, not filamentous spiral.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity response to tuberculosis. Step 2: A negative result means no significant immune response to TB antigens. Step 3: Option A is incorrect, as it refers to antitoxic immunity, not cell immunity. Step 4: Option B is incorrect, as it mentions antibodies, not cell-mediated immunity. Step 5: Option C is incorrect, as it states absence of antibodies, not cell immunity. Step 6: Option D is correct as it directly correlates with the purpose of Mantoux test.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not