ATI RN
microbiology an introduction test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
For the specific prophylaxis of rabies it is NOT CORRECT that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reinfection is indeed possible with rabies virus. Step 1: Reinfection occurs if a person is exposed to the virus again after initial infection. Step 2: Once infected, the virus can remain dormant in the body and become active upon re-exposure. Step 3: Therefore, it is essential to continue preventive measures even after initial immunization. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because antibodies develop within 14-15 days post-immunization, HRIG is administered shortly after exposure, and a specific vaccination schedule is followed for rabies prophylaxis, respectively.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presented with a painful, swollen lymph node, and bacteremia. A Gram-negative rod with a characteristic safety pin appearance was observed. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative rod with safety pin appearance indicates bipolar staining. Step 2: Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative rod causing bubonic plague. Step 3: Y. pestis has bipolar staining due to its unique F1 capsule. Step 4: The swollen lymph node and bacteremia are consistent with bubonic plague. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Summary: - B: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - C: Brucella melitensis causes brucellosis, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - D: Pasteurella multocida causes animal bites infections, not characterized by a safety pin appearance.
Question 3 of 5
The primary target of beta-lactam antibiotics is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary target of beta-lactam antibiotics is cell wall synthesis. These antibiotics inhibit enzymes called penicillin-binding proteins, which are essential for building the bacterial cell wall. By disrupting cell wall synthesis, beta-lactam antibiotics weaken the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis and death. Protein synthesis (Choice A), DNA replication (Choice B), and folic acid synthesis (Choice D) are not directly targeted by beta-lactam antibiotics, making them incorrect choices.
Question 4 of 5
A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis. Doctor administered her complex therapy that includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt, also known as penicillin G, works by blocking the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the microbial cell wall. Peptidoglycan is crucial for the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls. By inhibiting its synthesis, penicillin disrupts the cell wall formation, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because penicillin does not target cytoplasm proteins, thiol enzymes, or RNA synthesis. Penicillin's primary mode of action is specifically related to interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Question 5 of 5
A relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is harmed is called:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parasitism. In parasitism, one organism (parasite) benefits at the expense of the other organism (host). The parasite derives nutrients or resources from the host, causing harm or even death in some cases. This relationship is characterized by asymmetry, where one organism benefits while the other is negatively impacted. Commensalism (A) is a relationship where one organism benefits while the other is unaffected. Synergism (C) is a mutually beneficial relationship where both organisms benefit. Antagonism (D) is a relationship where both organisms are harmed or inhibited.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access