ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The primary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum). In the primary stage of syphilis, an individual typically develops a painless ulcer known as a chancre at the site of infection. This ulcer is usually firm, round, and clean with well-defined borders. It is important to note that it is non-tender, which distinguishes it from other skin conditions. This characteristic helps healthcare providers differentiate syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections. Explanation for other choices: A: Diffuse maculopapular rash - This is more commonly associated with secondary syphilis. B: Purulent exudation from the urethra - This is not a typical presentation of primary syphilis. C: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) - Gummas typically develop in the tertiary stage of syphilis, not in the primary stage.
Question 2 of 5
Micellar growth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Micellar growth refers to the apical prolongation of hyphae in fungi. Step 2: Fungi have a unique growth structure with hyphae extending at the tips. Step 3: This growth pattern allows fungi to expand and access nutrients. Step 4: Bacterial cells (A) do not exhibit micellar growth. Step 5: Parent and daughter cells in division have similar sizes, not different (B). Step 6: Viruses and rickettsia (C) do not display micellar growth.
Question 3 of 5
Which toxin is specific for ETEC:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: LT enterotoxin. This toxin is specific for Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) and is responsible for causing diarrhea by increasing cyclic AMP levels in intestinal cells. TSST-1 (choice A) is produced by Staphylococcus aureus, not ETEC. Shiga-like toxin (choice B) is produced by Shigella and EHEC, not ETEC. Erythrogenic toxin (choice C) is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, not ETEC. Therefore, the LT enterotoxin is the specific toxin associated with ETEC.
Question 4 of 5
A 40-year-old female farmworker has been diagnosed with brucellosis and administered causal chemotherapy. What group of drugs will be used for this purpose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotic. Brucellosis is a bacterial infection, and antibiotics are the primary treatment to target and eliminate the bacteria causing the disease. Antibiotics such as doxycycline and rifampin are commonly used for brucellosis treatment. Donor immunoglobulin (B) is not used to treat brucellosis as it is not caused by a deficiency in antibodies. Inactivated therapeutic vaccine (C) is used for prevention, not for treating active infections. Antitoxic serum (D) is used to neutralize toxins produced by bacteria, not to directly kill the bacteria themselves in cases like brucellosis.
Question 5 of 5
Microscopy of a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient revealed Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends surrounded by a capsule. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends: characteristic morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Surrounded by a capsule: S. pneumoniae is encapsulated, important for virulence. 3. Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-negative rod, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a Gram-positive cocci in clusters, not diplococci.
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