foundations of nursing practice questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden, temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side of the face. This manifests as drooping of the eyelid and corner of the mouth, difficulty smiling or closing the eye. Tinnitus (A) is ringing in the ears, not a common symptom of Bell's palsy. Pain at the base of the tongue (C) is not a typical manifestation of Bell's palsy. Diplopia (D) is double vision, which is not a primary symptom of Bell's palsy. Therefore, the correct manifestation to address in the plan of care for a patient with Bell's palsy is facial paralysis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary prevention. This program focuses on screening for relevant cancers, which is a key component of secondary prevention aimed at early detection and treatment to reduce the impact of the disease. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat health conditions in their early stages. Disease prophylaxis (A) focuses on preventing the occurrence of a disease, while risk reduction (B) aims to lower the chances of developing a disease. Tertiary prevention (D) involves managing and improving outcomes for individuals already diagnosed with a disease. In this scenario, the emphasis on screening aligns closely with the goals of secondary prevention, making it the most appropriate choice.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing individualized care is a fundamental aspect of cultural competence. This means tailoring care to meet the unique cultural, social, and personal needs of each patient. It involves understanding and respecting a patient's beliefs, values, and practices. Explanation: A. Providing care to transgender patients is important, but it is not the primary goal of cultural competence. B. Restoring relationships is beneficial but may not directly address cultural competence. D. Providing care to surgical patients is a common nursing duty but does not specifically relate to cultural competence.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Promotion of HPV immunization. This strategy is effective in preventing cervical cancer by targeting the main cause, which is Human Papillomavirus (HPV). The HPV vaccine can protect against the most common types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. Encouraging young women to delay first intercourse (B) does not directly prevent HPV transmission, as the virus can be transmitted through other means. Smoking cessation (C) is important for overall health but does not specifically prevent cervical cancer. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation (D) may have general health benefits but do not directly prevent cervical cancer. Using safer sex practices (E) can reduce the risk of HPV transmission but does not provide the same level of protection as HPV immunization.