foundations of nursing practice questions

Questions 101

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundations of nursing practice questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which postpartum patient reqNuUirResS fuIrNthGerT aBss.esCsmOeMnt?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the postpartum patient who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours should receive further assessment. This indicates excessive postpartum bleeding (postpartum hemorrhage), which is a critical complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring vital signs, assessing for signs of shock, evaluating uterine tone, and determining the cause of bleeding are crucial steps in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Choices B, C, and D are not the correct answers because: B: A patient with Class II heart disease complaining of frequent coughing is more likely experiencing cardiac-related issues and requires evaluation and management by a cardiologist. C: A patient with gestational diabetes and a fasting blood sugar level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate further assessment. D: A postcesarean patient with active herpes lesions on the labia requires appropriate management of the herpes infection but does not necess

Question 2 of 5

A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pelvic floor exercises. Pelvic floor exercises help strengthen the muscles that control urination, promoting continence. These exercises can improve bladder control and reduce urinary incontinence post-prostatectomy. Intermittent urinary catheterization (B) may lead to increased risk of infection. Reduced physical activity (C) can weaken pelvic floor muscles, worsening incontinence. Active range of motion exercises (D) do not directly address urinary incontinence.

Question 3 of 5

For which of the following population groups would an annual clinical breast examination be recommended?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Women over age 40. Annual clinical breast examinations are recommended for this population group because they have an increased risk of developing breast cancer compared to younger age groups. Regular screenings starting at age 40 can help in early detection and improve survival rates. A: Women over age 21 - This age group is generally recommended to start clinical breast examinations every 1-3 years, not necessarily annually. B: Women over age 25 - While it's important to be vigilant about breast health, the risk of breast cancer increases with age, making annual exams more crucial for older women. D: All post-pubescent females with a family history of breast cancer - While family history is a risk factor, the recommendation for annual clinical breast examinations typically begins at age 40, regardless of family history.

Question 4 of 5

A patient who is scheduled for an open prostatectomy is concerned about the potential effects of the surgery on his sexual function. What aspect of prostate surgery should inform the nurses response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Prostate surgery can damage nerves responsible for erectile function. Step 2: Nerve damage can lead to erectile dysfunction post-prostatectomy. Step 3: Choice B correctly states that all prostatectomies carry a risk of nerve damage and consequent erectile dysfunction, aligning with the potential impact of surgery on sexual function. Step 4: Other choices lack accuracy: A incorrectly attributes erectile dysfunction solely to hormonal changes, C falsely suggests temporary nature of dysfunction, and D wrongly claims no risk of dysfunction due to modern techniques.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is providing care for a patient who has experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction. What condition is an example of such a reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve an immediate response triggered by exposure to an allergen, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. In this case, a bee sting would introduce an allergen, causing a rapid and severe systemic reaction, known as anaphylaxis. B: Skin reaction resulting from adhesive tape is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction, mediated by T cells, not IgE antibodies as in Type I reactions. C: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder involving antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. D: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder involving immune complexes and inflammatory responses, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.

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