ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving antibiotics to treat a gram-negative bacterial infection. Because antibiotics destroy the body�s normal flora, the nurse must monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diarrhea. Antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of gut bacteria, leading to diarrhea. This occurs due to the overgrowth of harmful bacteria in the intestines. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to prevent dehydration and further complications. Platelet dysfunction (A), stomatitis (B), and oliguria/dysuria (C) are not typically associated with the disruption of normal flora by antibiotics. These symptoms are more likely related to other conditions or side effects of medications, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A 50-year old male was brought toi the emergency department with a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. The client had a posterior pituitary tumor. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate for this client is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: fluid volume deficit. In diabetes insipidus, there is an excessive amount of dilute urine excreted, leading to dehydration and fluid volume deficit. The posterior pituitary tumor causes a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys. As a result, the client experiences polyuria and polydipsia, leading to fluid volume deficit. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diabetes insipidus does not cause fluid volume excess, incontinence, or diarrhea. The key is to recognize the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus and its impact on fluid balance.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted for a spelenectomy. What problem is the nurse aware that could develop?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. After a splenectomy, the client is at risk for infection due to the spleen's role in the immune system. Without the spleen, the body's ability to fight infections is reduced. Infections can be serious and life-threatening. B: Urinary retention is not a typical complication of a splenectomy. C: Congestive heart failure is not directly related to a splenectomy. D: Viral hepatitis is not a common complication of a splenectomy.
Question 4 of 5
Severe and extensive hemolysis causes which of the ff?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe and extensive hemolysis leads to the release of large amounts of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing hemoglobinemia. This can result in hemoglobinuria, leading to acute renal failure and ultimately shock. Shock is the correct answer as it is a severe consequence of extensive hemolysis. Leg ulcers (A) may occur in conditions like peripheral arterial disease. Priapism (C) is unrelated to hemolysis. Compromised growth (D) is not a common consequence of hemolysis.
Question 5 of 5
for pain management. When applying a new system, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Pressing the system in place for 30 to 60 seconds helps ensure proper adhesion and absorption of the medication. This step is crucial for the effectiveness of the pain management system. B: Choosing a site on the lower torso is not necessary for applying the system. The site selection should be based on guidelines and patient preference. C: Shaving the application site is not recommended unless specifically indicated. It is not a standard step for applying a pain management system. D: Applying the system immediately after removal from a package may not allow the adhesive to fully activate, affecting its efficacy. It is important to follow the recommended steps for proper application.
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